Do KJV-Only Pastors Understand the KJV? (National Survey, Parts 1 and 2)
“The King James Bible Study Project is a phone survey completed this year in which I and volunteers called 100 KJV-Only pastors and asked them twenty questions.” - Mark Ward
Survey results at https://kjbstudyproject.com/
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Great project. I think he made his point very well.
A little over 17 minutes in, he addresses 1 Cor 6:19-20. Here, in KJV:
What? know ye[P] not that your[P] body[S] is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you[P], which ye[P] have of God, and ye[P] are not your[P] own?
For ye[P] are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your[P] body, and in your[P] spirit, which are God's.
Note: "your[Plural] body[Singular] is the temple of the Holy Ghost."
He goes on to compare with our use of "the way we[Plural] treat our[Plural] wife[Singular]." Since we all know that "we" don't share one wife, we all understand that the speaker is referring to wives. That is, he means, "the way we[Plural] treat our[Plural] wives[Plural]." But that might also be confusing and suggest that we each have several.
What I have wondered is whether Paul actually meant "your[P] body[S]." A visiting missionary might address your church and say, "Your church is a very loving church." He actually means, "the [Singular] church of you all[Plural]." In that case, Paul's message in 1 Cor 6:19 should read:
What? don't you all know that your collective body (your church) is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you all, which you all have of God, and you all are not your own?
I believe I’ve seen the passage read that way in some commentaries.
These videos could be a ‘master class’ in how to argue effectively and fairly. It helps that I agree with his position, but it’s telling that he has KJVO contacts who also respect his evenhandedness, though they are not (yet) persuaded he is correct.
Views expressed are always my own and not my employer's, my church's, my family's, my neighbors', or my pets'. The house plants have authorized me to speak for them, however, and they always agree with me.
In the second video, Mark discusses 1 Cor 15:19:
If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable.
Mark says, "the key here the meaning of 'miserable' in the Greek and in the Elizabethan English Focus not on our emotional state - I'm feeling very poorly - but on our objective State on how others regard us. In other words we are in a pitiable state whether we feel it or not."
The ESV renders it "pitiable."
Yeah, I have to object to this one. First, this distinction has nothing to do with Elizabethan vs. modern English. Both "miserable" and "pitiable" are modern words.
Maybe this is a SLIGHTLY poor translation as Mark describes it, but it isn't an example of a once-good translation, now rendered poor by the passage of time and change of the vernacular.
False friends are words in modern use, not archaic words.
in this case, “miserable” tends to have a modern connotation different from its 1611 connotation. The modern connotation of “pitiable” gets to the sense of the Gk more accurately
Maranatha!
Don Johnson
Jer 33.3
Discussion