Burk vs. Du Mez: Why are evangelicals evolving on doctrines linked to LGBTQ issues?

“Here is my question: What does it mean to state that ‘homosexuality is sinful’? Is this a discussion of homosexual orientation or of sexual behavior?” - Terry Mattingly

Discussion

I think that the struggle with porn, for instance, is something that could use some more exposure within churches.

Of course, but I think that is entirely different than identifying as PS (porn struggler). And that may not even be useful in a private conversation. It is probably enough to acknowledge the reality of the struggle generally.

[Dan Miller]
Jay wrote:I do not understand the difference between why my desires as a heterosexual man for other women (that I am not married to) are in any way different from the desires of homosexual men for other men. Paul (and the other NT writers) do not differentiate between the two, but command that all unlawful sexual desires should be put to death.

I agree. One difference is that circumstances could change for you - if you lost your wife, then desires for some other woman would become good, assuming you remarried. But there’s no change of circumstances scenario that would make homosexual desire good.

But that change of circumstances is not part of your question. The answer to your question is that they are both illicit desires.

I.e., one is contingent, one is immutable.
In other words, one runs counter nature and as such is unnatural and inherently unlawful (Romans 1:26-27); the other is, as you say, unlawful by circumstance and not unnatural at all.

Thus, they are quite different; and I disagree that Paul and the other NT writers don’t make a distinction (see above). Certainly all sexual sins are to be mortified, but that does not mean all sexual sins are somehow equivalent.