Wanted: More Arminians
It has become a bit routine:
- Email arrives from someone assuming I am (or everybody at SharperIron is) a Calvinist.
- Email poses question believed to be incriminating of Calvinists or unanswerable by them.
- Response from me offers biblical answer that is not especially calvinistic.
- Questioner ignores most of the particulars, broadly condemns “Calvinism.”
- Discussion becomes repetitive, overly heated or both, ends.
A recent example appears below, with details removed to avoid identifying the sender. I’m including the exchange because, this time around, a reality hit home to me that hadn’t before: apparently, many fundamentalists think that anti-Calvinism is a complete doctrine of salvation.
But anti-Calvinism is, at best, a thoughtful rejection of one particular doctrine of salvation. More commonly, it’s nothing more than a feeling of hostility toward doctrines only partially understood. As a result, many anti-Calvinists have no coherent doctrine of salvation at all. They have rejected lasagna from the menu but have walked away without ordering any alternative.
If the emails I get are any indication, most anti-Calvinists are completely unaware that they have an empty hole where their soteriology ought to be.
So this essay is a plea for more Arminians. Love it or hate it, authentic Arminianism offers a thoughtful, self-consistent set of Bible-based answers to all the same questions Calvinism wrestles with. And the cause of the gospel would be far better served if more anti-Calvinists would embrace some kind of coherent soteriology. Classical Arminianism is not the work of slouches and is far better than the semi-Pelagian, Finneyist confusion that came along later—and way, way better than the self-contradictory, quasi-Pelagian mush many anti-Calvinists settle for nowadays!
The conversation
Anti-Calvinist (1)
How do you theologize away “…was not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance?”. And, just so I know, are you a Calvinist who opines that, in John 3:16, that when God so loved the world, it was the world of the elect……..and whosoever actually means “whosoever of the elect”? Just wondering, because my 3rd grade sunday school students read it and believe it means all inclusive.
Me (1)
Hi, [name removed].
Since all do not actually come to repentance, and God works all things according to the counsel of His will (Eph.1), that verse requires an explanation regardless of whether one identifies more closely with a Calvinist, Arminian or quasi-Pelagian approach—or none of the above.
In short, “not willing that any should perish” has to be “theologized away” by everybody in one way or another. The question is how to harmonize it with what is revealed elsewhere. A sort of short answer, from my point of view, is that unless we say those burning in Hell for eternity are there against God’s will, we have to understand “not willing” in 2 Pet. 3:9 to be either (a) describing God as conflicted on this point or (b) having a narrower meaning based on the context. As for (a) the idea would be that He wants them there perishing in some sense but doesn’t want them there in another. It is part of His plan to reveal His righteousness through “vessels of wrath” (Rom. 9:22), yet He is grieved that this part of the plan brings suffering to His creatures (“endured with much longsuffering” - also Rom.9:22).
But the other possibility is that (b) the verse should to be read in context as an explanation for why He delays His coming (see 2Pet.3:4ff), that is, He delays because He is not willing to end His plan early and leave those who would have believed stranded without their day of opportunity. In short, Peter is saying “God has a schedule, and His coming is right on time. There are still those He plans to save.”
I can see merits in both (a) and (b), though I’m still not entirely confident I correctly understand Romans 9. But other passages do indicate He does not take pleasure “in the death of one who dies” (Ezek 18.32). So a scenario where He is “willing” and yet “not willing” at the same time doesn’t seem out of the question to me. All the same, as far as 2 Pet. 3 goes, (b) handles the context better.
Hope that helps. I’m not speaking for others at SharperIron. There would be a variety of answers to that question from folks on the team, not to mention those who would join in discussion.
Anti-Calvinist (2)
See your quote below.
In short, “not willing that any should perish” has to be “theologized away” by everybody in one way or another. The question is how to harmonize it with what is revealed elsewhere. A sort of short answer, from my point of view, is that unless we say those burning in Hell for eternity are there against God’s will, we have to understand “not willing” in 2 Pet. 3:9 to be either (a) describing God as conflicted on this point or (b) having a narrower meaning based on the context. As for (a) the idea would be that He wants them there perishing in some sense but doesn’t want them there in another.
No point in arguing with you, however, I will point out, that it appears that you do not believe people can refuse salvation, and go to hell for their unbelief…..and this is what God desired all along. To put the thought process simply: God created a man, desiring that the man would go to hell, thus not granting him “elect” status, which you oh-so-conveniently purport to possess…..lucky you, that you aren’t part of Gods big ant-squashing rumpus room, right?
Me (2)
Eph2, Romans 3 are clear that people do not want to believe. This is why God must graciously bring conviction to them first. No one comes except the Father draws him. It’s not about luck. It’s called grace. There are ultimately only two possibilities: either I am chosen on the basis of some quality I possess or I am chosen graciously apart from any merit of my own (what you are calling “lucky” here). So which do you choose to believe? If you decide for “merit,” you have rejected the gospel. (This is not a “Calvinist” idea. Even Arminians affirm that human beings do not, on their own, possess any inclination to believe the gospel. An act of Grace by God is required.)*
So in your view, is God’s will eternally flouted by the existence of sinners in Hell? Is He standing helplessly by as His will is defeated by millions who reject His offer of salvation? If so, as the old saying goes, your God is too small.
Anti-Calvinist (3)
Do you believe that it is God’s desire that some people go to hell?
Me (3)
Tell you what, I’ll answer that after you answer my questions. :)
Anti-Calvinist (4)
Its been the basic question all along. Does God desire that certain people go to hell? (His will).
Me (4)
I shouldn’t answer your questions if you won’t answer mine. But I’ll let Scripture answer them…
He “works all things according to the counsel of His own will.” Eph.1.11
Declaring the end from the beginning, And from ancient times things that are not yet done, Saying, ‘My counsel shall stand, And I will do all My pleasure,’ (Isaiah 46:10)
But our God is in heaven; He does whatever He pleases. (Psalm 115:3)
Whatever the Lord pleases He does, In heaven and in earth, In the seas and in all deep places. (Psalm 135:6)
Anti-Calvinist (5)
Almost as if you are afraid to answer yes, so instead you dance.
In order for Calvinism to be true, God must desire (will) that some boys and girls die and go to hell someday.
Me (5)
Quoting Scripture is dancing? I’m happy to be dancing in that case. When you have something to say about the verses I’ve quoted and the questions I’ve raised, I’d be happy to discuss the matter further.
Anti-Calvinist (6)
There is nothing to discuss, because you are wrong. In typical fashion, a calvinist must engage in long drawn-out searching in order to understand salvation.
Yes, you danced. I asked a question about what you believe. Instead of giving a simple response, you attempted to deflect “blame” for your position of predamnation to the Bible.
Your hateful self-important heresy rears its ugly head up every few decades, and gains momentum….only to once again be slapped down with: “For God so loved the WORLD…that WHOSOEVER..”, “..not our sins only..” Whosoever shall call upon the name of the LORD shall be saved.
Sir, a child hearing the Gospel, can understand these verses, and understand that God wants to save everyone.
Im glad that you are wrong, and that everyone can be saved. You believing the world is flat, does not make it so.
A plea for seriousness
The exchange above is shortened slightly, but even in the full length version the anti-Calvinist offers no explanation for how it is that people can spend eternity in Hell contrary to God’s will, how a God who “wants to save everyone” fails to do so, how a God who wants all to be saved could ever return (thus ending the opportunity of salvation for many), or even why there should be any eternal Hell at all.
To all anti-Calvinists everywhere: I respect your right to reject Calvinism—more than you know! But if you’re going to be anti something, please be for something else. Develop a studious, serious, thoughtful and—yes, systematic—set of answers to the issues of God’s sovereign plan; the phenomenon of human choice; the reality of Hell in God’s plan; the nature of depravity, election and grace; and the extent and application of the atonement. For my part, I’d be thrilled if more of you picked up a copy of Roger E. Olson’s Arminian Theology: Myths and Realities and became full-blown Arminians.
*The references to sovereign grace as luck and divine wrath as ant squishing, etc. disoriented me for a bit here, I guess. My counter-argument is pretty much a calvinistic one, since the belief-enabling grace in Arminianism is not granted individually but rather preveniently to all who hear the gospel.
Aaron Blumer Bio
Aaron Blumer, SharperIron’s second publisher, is a Michigan native and graduate of Bob Jones University (Greenville, SC) and Central Baptist Theological Seminary (Plymouth, MN). He and his family live in a small town in western Wisconsin, not far from where he pastored Grace Baptist Church for thirteen years. He is employed in customer service for UnitedHealth Group and teaches high school rhetoric (and sometimes logic and government) at Baldwin Christian School.
- 38 views
Since the Arminian believes God’s grace (previenent grace) is bestowed upon all equally, God’s grace cannot be the sole reason for who is saved and who is not. If the same grace was given to the non-elect as the elect, grace does not explain the difference. What does? Something apart from grace. What is that “something”? That’s the heart of the issue, as I see it.
G. N. Barkman
[G. N. Barkman] Those who “improve” their prevenient grace are saved.No, that’s backwards.
Those who reject prevenient grace are lost. This is not just semantics. There is a material difference.
Despair does not lie in being weary of suffering, but in being weary of joy.G.K. Chesterton
I don’t see how that makes any difference. What makes the difference between the saved and the lost? (According to Arminian style previenent grace.)
You can answer either way:
1) The sinner does, by responding positively to previent grace.
2) The sinner does, by rejecting previent grace.
Either way, what ultimately makes the difference between the saved and the lost is something within the sinner. The sinner who is saved can say, “Well, at least I had the good sense not to reject God’s grace, as my neighbor did.” Thus he takes some credit for his own salvation.
Thanks for the exchange.
Cordially,
Greg Barkman
G. N. Barkman
[Chip Van Emmerik] Dan,I don’t think it’s apples and oranges…. Red Delicious apples vs. Granny Smith apples maybe?
This is apples and oranges to the soteriology under discussion. You are dealing with regenerate issues. The question here pertains to the abilities the unregenerate man has to believe.
Many use the same arguments for their view of sanctification that they do for their view of regeneration. I’ve heard more than one with a Reformed turn of mind characterize various views of sanctification as “synergistic.”
So, though the situation is different, the question is worth considering to see if there are helpful points of similarity.
I think the question raises somewhat similar problems.
- If we say that God sovereignly works in the believer’s heart so that he will certainly obey the prompting of the Spirit in a particular case, we risk setting up a rationale where the believer might think he should blame God whenever he does not heed the Spirit.
- If we say that the believer chooses to heed or not heed the Spirit based on something “in himself,” we risk a situation where a person who heeded the Spirit thinks he can boast in comparison to someone who did not heed the Spirit.
Off hand, I’m inclined to say that—just as in the act of believing—we really have to rule out random conditions/luck and have to rule out pantheistic ideas (i.e., what we do is wired into the universe somehow and caused neither by God nor by the believer nor by random circumstances). Of the options that are left, the difference between a believer who heeds the Spirit and one who doesn’t has to be either something in himself or something God does to guarantee that result (if we assume that all the other things God does have been done equally already to both believers).
So there is, to use, GNB’s term, an “additional something” that accounts for one heeding and another not heeding. So what is it?
I feel like an additional possibility is just slightly out of reach of my mind but getting closer.
But it seems to me we have some difficult tensions, no matter how we answer it… whether the question regards sanctification or conversion.
Views expressed are always my own and not my employer's, my church's, my family's, my neighbors', or my pets'. The house plants have authorized me to speak for them, however, and they always agree with me.
The significance you ask?
- The active voice of a verb is used when the subject of the verb performs the action of the verb. And here the subject of the verb is “you”, the person being commanded. In other words, “You believe on the Lord Jesus Christ.
- The passive voice is used when we understand that while the subject is connected to the action of the verb it is done so passively or in a manner where the subject receives the action of the verb. That is much like saying, “I am being baptized”.
__________
The standard argument, of course, is the gross error of some that the person believing must have been regenerated first therefore he could believe and the active voice may be used. Again, though, even with this argument the passive voice would be appropriately used seeing that it is not himself but his regeneration which has come through divine agency that has caused his belief. The grammar would reflect the true nature of the action of the verb.
In reality the emphasis is on human volition, not divine agency, in the employment of the active voice for believing. The grammar points our attention to the proper concerns.
__________
Lest someone argue that the writer may not have been concerned about such discrimination (and if one did make such an argument it would be strange in light of divine superintendence) fortunately in the latter portion of the verse we do have a passive voice use which refers to divine agency doing the action of the verb, namely where it states, “and you will be saved…”. The word for saved (sozo) is in the passive voice. That means the subject (you) are saved but instead of you performing or doing the action of the verb (which would be the active voice indicating you saving yourself and not compatible with Scripture) you are receiving the action of the verb, which reflects God doing the saving.
And that is what salvation is, God doing the saving, which is indicated by the passive voice of saved. And the writer clearly is aware of the use of the passive and active voice since he employs both, right here.
Hence, when we look at believe we see the writer using the active voice, knowing full well he uses the passive voice with the word saved so as to communicate God performing the action of that verb and not the earlier one.
If the view of some that in his atonement Christ also provided our believing, the active voice would not be used, rather the passive voice for the command, “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ…”.
*This should not be read with the assumption that I am attempting to articulate my own view in full or part or that I am an Arminian, I am not, but to point out one of the many problems with Calvinism when one engages in exegesis. Calvinism is very compatible with rationalism since it is built largely by means of rationalism but exegesis appears to be its worst enemy with regard to its proprietary doctrines.
“The efficacy of faith, then, depends not upon the faith itself, considered as a psychological phenomenon, but upon the object of the faith, namely Christ. Faith is not regarded in the New Testament as itself a meritorious work or a meritorious condition of the soul; but is regarded as a means which is used by the grace of God: the New Testament never says that a man is saved on account of his faith, but always that he is saved through his faith or by means of his faith; faith is merely the means which the Holy Spirit uses to apply to the individual soul the benefits of Christ’s death.” (p. 180-181, “What is Faith,” 1937, Banner of Truth Trust, edition 1991).
The philosophical construct of monergism v. synergism is not seen in the New Testament or the Old Testament. In salvation faith is not an attribute of the soul. In salvation it is contrasted to works (Rom. 4:5-8); and in sanctification is that which again is the means through which assurance and enablement are given. with a result that may see works (Heb. 11:1-39). For us to talk of monergism or synergism is to impose human thinking upon divine perspective. Faith alone is alone that works may not be in view. Reformed soteriology constructs false scenarios which cloud the simplicity of biblical salvation through true grace. Actually, the use of the word grace with faith does away with any concept that would make faith an attribute of the soul which man contributes to salvation his salvation.
No one on this tread has denied that it is the sinner, himself, who does the believing. (active voice) In fact, it has been clearly stated that it is the sinner, not God, who repents, and the sinner, not God who believes. There must be a disconnect somewhere, since non-Calvinists seem to think Calvinists are saying the God believes for the sinner. Who said that? Could it be that some suppose Calvinists logic demands this conclusion, even though every Calvinist I know says the opposite?
However, Alex has come to an important issue which I do not believe has not been clearly articulated on this thread The Calvinist understanding that regeneration precedes faith is foundational to much of this discussion. I would enjoy seeing Alex’s exegesis of I John 5:1, the text that John Piper said turned him into a convinced Calvinist. If Alex will give as careful attention to the verbs here as in Acts 16:31, he will see that regeneration precedes faith, a doctrine also taught in other passages such as John 3:3,5 and I Corinthians 2:14.
When that is cleared up, everything else becomes plain. Regeneration is the cause of believing, not the result. God gives new life to the elect sinner, enabling him to repent and believe. Faith is the result of the new birth. Thus it is the renewed sinner who exercies faith. He does the believing. God doesn’t believe for him. But he believes because of what God did in him. There is no question about his faith being the gift of God.
The Arminian is hard pressed to explain how a sinner, spiritually dead, is able to exercise saving faith. That’s why Prevenient Grace is needed. The sinner, born depraved, blind, spiritually dead, could never understand his perilous condition and consider Christ desirable. Voila! Prevenient Grace reverses the effects of Adam’s fall, and now he can understand and believe, if he will exercise his free will to do so. But there are problems. Problem number one: where does the Bible teach the doctrine of Prevenient Grace? Where are we told that anything short of the new birth reverses the effects of Adam’s fall. Number two: how do you explain the difference between those saved and lost without attributing the final component in salvation to man, not God, and thus having to explain the gracelessness of this component. If God only renders men able to believe, but just as able to reject (resistable grace), it is inescapable that man, not God, is ultimately responsible for his own salvation in that he alone, not God is responsible for that vital “something” that makes Christ’s atonement effective for that particular sinner. It’s a real problem that I wrestled with until I finally surrendered to the Calvinist understanding of salvation, which I found more compatible with Scripture. I had been very strongly prejudiced against Calvinism in my upbringing. It was difficult, even painful, to embrace that which many of my beloved teachers hated. But Scripture finally won the day. What a blessed surrender indeed!
Warm regards,
Greg Barkman
G. N. Barkman
Voice, whether Greek or English (and I teach both), cannot communicate theological concepts like the nature of faith. It simply relates the subject to the action, as agent, recipient, or a few less common options. I fail to see any relevance of voice to the discussion.
My Blog: http://dearreaderblog.com
Cor meum tibi offero Domine prompte et sincere. ~ John Calvin
I do not believe my post, whether poorly articulated or you read it with different glasses (so to speak), was correctly understood. My argument has nothing to do with the English translation but with the use of the voice in the Greek. The example of the English translation which was used for the passive voice was only an anecdotal explanation for those who may be unfamiliar with it.
However, to your claim:
Voice, whether Greek or English (and I teach both), cannot communicate theological concepts like the nature of faith. It simply relates the subject to the action, as agent, recipient, or a few less common options. I fail to see any relevance of voice to the discussion.I encourage you to do a bit more due diligence on the use of the voice in verbs and their theological impact. I believe you are vastly undervaluing their emphasis and influence in the formation of theological concepts and this is a claim that runs contrary to almost every orthodox exegete I have encountered.
But it is not surprising to find a Calvinist, when encountering such a forward use of the active voice in reference to faith, to dismiss it in this manner. And again, this is why I believe exegesis is Calvinism’s enemy and not its friend.
[G. N. Barkman] Good discussion. Actually, Alex, exegesis is the Calvinist’s greatest friend. That’s how I became a Calvinist, and that’s how most Calvinists who were formerly non-Calvinists became such. Also, it turns out that though both Arminianism and Calvinism emply logic, it is actually Arminianism that most resorts to reasoning to fill in the gaps in Scripture, as with the Armionian doctrine of Prevenient Grace, taught nowhere in Scripture, but made necessary by the logic of Arminian assumptions.G.N.,
Well it happens that it was through a more thorough systematic exegesis I was compelled to renounced my Calvinistic and Reformed theology to which I held for a good number of years. So no doubt the experience works both ways. As to Arminianism and Calvinism holding to certain methods of rationalism, I do not disagree, and again for the record I am neither a Calvinist or Arminian.
[G. N. Barkman] No one on this tread has denied that it is the sinner, himself, who does the believing. (active voice) In fact, it has been clearly stated that it is the sinner, not God, who repents, and the sinner, not God who believes. There must be a disconnect somewhere, since non-Calvinists seem to think Calvinists are saying the God believes for the sinner. Who said that?I was not addressing the what but the why. That is why do they believe? If it is because of another agent (God) then the passive voice would be required. Possibly you are seeing the nuance of the active and passive voice in connection with these kinds of arguments or simply do not find any cause for appreciation for the detail I am referring to, that is fine. But again, it is not the what (that the sinner believes himself) which would influence the use of the passive or active voice but the why, which is what I was addressing.
[G. N. Barkman] However, Alex has come to an important issue which I do not believe has not been clearly articulated on this thread The Calvinist understanding that regeneration precedes faith is foundational to much of this discussion. I would enjoy seeing Alex’s exegesis of I John 5:1, the text that John Piper said turned him into a convinced Calvinist. If Alex will give as careful attention to the verbs here as in Acts 16:31, he will see that regeneration precedes faith, a doctrine also taught in other passages such as John 3:3,5 and I Corinthians 2:14.I will work on that. As to Piper’s becoming a convinced Calvinist, well I have low regard for Piper’s exegesis and much of his sloppy (if not careless) theology. I so appreciate his zeal and earnestness but that is far from sufficient for disciplined and rigorous attention to exegetical details and their implication.
I will provide some response later for you on 1 John 5:1 and as for Acts 16:31, I have already dealt with the rather clear direction and implication of that exegesis which uses the active voice for the exercise of faith which is performed by the believer and the passive voice for our being saved, which denotes God doing that work, 1 John 5:1 will not alter the exegesis in Acts. But I will look at 1 John as you request.
[G. N. Barkman] When that is cleared up, everything else becomes plain. Regeneration is the cause of believing, not the result. God gives new life to the elect sinner, enabling him to repent and believe. Faith is the result of the new birth. Thus it is the renewed sinner who exercies faith. He does the believing. God doesn’t believe for him. But he believes because of what God did in him. There is no question about his faith being the gift of God.Well apparently our Lord Jesus wasn’t informed about this when He taught the parable of the sower where it is the word of God (the gospel) that causes regeneration (brings life) after it is received and not before. Regeneration before faith is not the result of exegesis but of rationalism.
[G. N. Barkman] The Arminian is hard pressed to explain how a sinner, spiritually dead, is able to exercise saving faith.I will leave that to Arminians to explain, I am not one of them. If you do wish to know more specifically about my view of faith as it relates to this I will provide that but it does seem to be getting a bit off topic and I do not want to insult the thread author or the thread’s intent.
Greg Barkman
In my second paragraph I stated:
Possibly you are seeing the nuance of the active and passive voice in connection with these kinds of argumentsThat should read:
Possibly you are not seeing the nuance of the active and passive voice in connection with these kinds of arguments
Why do you keep emphasizing the active voice for “believe” in Acts 16:31, when nobody has denied it, and I have specifically and emphatically affirmed it? Every Calvinist I am acquainted with (personally and through reading) affirms that the sinner himself believes, not God. But what does that prove, in light of the repeatedly stated fact that Calvinists affirm this truth?
You deny that some supply reasoning to fill the gaps in exegesis, but your obsession with disproving what Calvinists do not believe gives me pause. What are you doing, if not attacking a straw man erected by the logic of what you think Calvinism ought to believe?
Let me say it one more time. Sinners exercise faith. The sinner repents, not God. The sinner believes, not God. Am I missing something here? I really am puzzled about your fixation on a point that nobody, in 100 posts on this thread, has denied.
Cordially,
Greg Barkman
G. N. Barkman
-------
Greg Long, Ed.D. (SBTS)
Pastor of Adult Ministries
Grace Church, Des Moines, IA
Adjunct Instructor
School of Divinity
Liberty University
I’m trying to understand your point. Could you take an actual Greek text, one that you think proves your point, and rewrite it the way you think a Calvinist would need it to read? Then I can compare your composed text with the actual and see what semantic difference the variation creates.
My Blog: http://dearreaderblog.com
Cor meum tibi offero Domine prompte et sincere. ~ John Calvin
[Alex] But it is not surprising to find a Calvinist, when encountering such a forward use of the active voice in reference to faith, to dismiss it in this manner. And again, this is why I believe exegesis is Calvinism’s enemy and not its friend.Two things.
First, Charlie’s point is solid. He’s not talking about English except to explain what the meaning of a passive verb would be. You have to translate to explain it. The fact is that in any language the meaning of a passive voice version of “believe” would come out either as something like “to be believed” or “object was believed by subject.”
In any case, as Charlie accurately pointed out, Calvinism teaches that the sinner is the subject of “believe.”
Second, I think the history of Calvinist and Arminian study is pretty clear that both sides employ a good bit of exegesis and regard it as their friend. In modern times we have a great deal of neglect of exegesis by non-Calvinists and not so much by Calvinists. But there are serious and studious Arminians as well who strive to properly understand the details of the key texts.
At at rate, generalizations like “exegesis is on our side” are pretty useless for either side. Might as well just say “our view is better than yours.” Well, it kind of goes without saying that each perspective believes that about it’s own view.
Views expressed are always my own and not my employer's, my church's, my family's, my neighbors', or my pets'. The house plants have authorized me to speak for them, however, and they always agree with me.
Discussion