The 10 Commandments
I have completed the introduction to my article. I was not sure on what BIble translation to use and was debating between the NIV, KJV, and ESV, so I decided on the HCSB. I wanted a translation that was easy for the average joe to understand, and so the HCSB reads very much like the NIV, and its a little more literal.
Other than spelling and Grammar errors (which I have not even checked myself yet) what do you say? This article will be written for the Christian. Thanks..
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The Ten Commandments
The Ten Commandments are found both in Ex 20 and Deut 5. They are very important as they are stated twice in the OT, and referred too often in the NT. Jesus himself used the Ten Commandments often in his evangelism endeavors, and Paul emphasized their importance in Romans. The first four commandments pertain to the relationship of the Israelites with God, and the other six deal with social relationships within the body of Christ. The Ten Commandments were designed to lead Israel into a life of Holiness, and Holiness is the major theme of the next book in the OT Leviticus. By the time of Christ, many looked at the Ten Commandments wrong, and thought that obeying them would lead to eternal life and prosperity on earth. None of these interpretations are what the Ten Commandments are teaching. The Ten Commandments reveal sin, and are a great schoolmaster. Many in today’s church think that the Ten Commandments are no longer needed, because we are under grace, but this is not entirely true. We are under grace, but the law reveals sin (Rm 3:20) and is a great tool to use in evangelism. God has spoken through the Ten Commandments and we must take it seriously. Hearing the voice of God through the Ten Commandments is not just to receive information, but to meet God. God did not give us His commandments so that we could memorize it, but that we could live better for him. We do not live for him to earn our salvation, but in response to our salvation. These Ten Commandments have been neglected and forgotten by many in today’s church, and I have seen the need to write about them. All scripture unless otherwise indicated will be from the Holman Christian Standard Version (HCSB).
Then God spoke all these words: I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the place of slavery.
1. Do not have other gods besides Me.
2. Do not make an idol for yourself.
3. Do not misuse the name of the LORD your God, because the LORD will punish anyone who misuses His name.
4. Remember to dedicate the Sabbath day.
5. Honor your father and your Mother.
6. Do not murder.
7. Do not commit adultery.
8. Do not steal.
9. Do not give false testimony against your neighbor.
10. Do not covet.
Exodus 20:1-17
The FIRST Commandment
Do not have other gods besides Me (Exodus 20:3)
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[Greg Long] Stephen, let me try to say this as clearly as I can.Any thinking person could figure it out. it is pointless to categorize them for you, because all you will do is argue my classification. What is the point to that?
I do NOT believe OT laws can be divided or categorized as moral, civil, or ceremonial. Therefore, the questions are meaningless to me.
But you DO believe OT laws can be divided or categorized as moral, civil, or ceremonial. Therefore, you MUST be able to tell me which OT laws as moral, which are civil, and which are ceremonial. It really shouldn’t be that difficult for you.
If you can’t answer the questions, then you have proven my point, that OT laws cannot be neatly categorized as moral, civil, or ceremonial.
Why can’t you answer the questions?
Even if you don’t agree with my position, you could be open-minded enough about it to at least see it from my perspective, and try to classify them. You don’t seem to be willing to do that either…so again, it is a fruitless exercise.
Here is the thing - I have admitted that the Jewish people were under the ENTIRE Law.
All I am saying is that the moral aspects of the law have not changed - not one bit.
That fact does not mean that we are under bondage to keep the entire law as the Jews were required to do.
It means exactly what it says - the moral codes have not changed.
See? It really is that simple!
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[James K] Stephen, what is the basis for your determination that something is moral as opposed to simply civil or ceremonial? Before we can continue, we need to be on the same page with at least that.Well, excuse me for not “thinking my position through!”Now, gentlemen, I have seen a lot of philsophical arguments, but I have not seen very much documentation from Scripture to support your position. I think that speaks volumes against you!I gave you Rom 6 which specifically ends the authority of the law over the believers.
I gave you Gal 4 which specifically ends the role of the law as steward until the Messiah came.
I gave you Tit 2 which specifically does NOT appeal to law as the means of righteousness for the believer.
You admit that the sabbath isn’t binding on the believer yet refer to the permanence of what was written in stone. Make up your mind.
You pick and choose which laws are moral and which aren’t but have not demonstrated how you reach those conclusions.
If the NT commands a certain positive/negative action/motive, it may indeed pull from the OT as the base of information, but never as authority. For example, saying to not murder or even have contempt in your heart assumes that you know why murder is wrong, because man was created in the image of God. That is why Cain was guilty by the way. It had nothing to do with the 10 commandments. Your failure to understand my constant reference to Cain (even Larry did it to help you) demonstrates you have not thought through your position. You have tried to argue that there is a law written on people’s hearts as though that is the authority. I thought you were saying it was the 10 commandments or the NT repetition of it. So now we have 3 variations of the authority.
Now, let’s see. When I sit down to write out my lessons and sermons, I attempt to prove my case with plenty of Scripture. If my theology is correct, then I should have no problem finding plenty of Scripture to support my case. If I have trouble finding several supporting passages, or I find too many contradictory passages, then I must question my position, back up, and start all over again.
Likewise, when I listen to other preachers or teachers, my expectation is that when they make their assertions, that they support their assertions with PLENTY of Scripture.
I have just finished going back through this thread. I counted 20 separate passages that i have quoted or cited in defense of my position.
Between Larry and James, I counted 3 - just three. And when i asked them direct questions that required specific, narrow responses, there was no Scripture given - just a re-hash of what they had already said. (my count could be off, but should be fairly close!)
Now, Jim Peet gave a very good response, with several Scriptures as supporting points. I can respect that.
I can respect an answer that is a thoughtful, reasonable presentation based on Scripture - even when I don’t agree with the conclusion. At least I can be content in knowing that the individual is searching the Scripture for the answers.
I don’t sense that here.
I am sorry James. I cannot accept your three points supported by one verse each. That doesn’t work for me. If your position is true, you should have absolutely no problem pulling up SEVERAL Scriptures for each point.
You have not done that, even when asked directly.
Sabbath - I have addressed this, and directed you to Leviticus 23 as proof that the Sabbath was part of the Ceremonial law.
“Pick and Choose?” Really now - is it that difficult to discern that stealing is moral, and the sacrifices are ceremonial? Would a Sunday School child have any trouble figuring that out?
Your statement about the NT citing the OT, but never as “authority” is absolute nonsense. If the NT writers did not think the OT was “authoritative” in its decrees, then what would be the point in refering back to them? That doesn’t even make sense!
That would be like the Supreme Court refering to a law code from a different country, but then saying that the foreign law code had no bearing on the case. Well, if it has no bearing, then why bring it up? Thus, those references to the OT PROVE that the OT is “authoritative.” Paul never commands us to observe any of the ceremonies, feasts, or sacrifices, but he does point us back to the moral parts - and I documented that for you with SEVERAL passages.
AGAIN, all I am saying is that the moral codes of the OT Jewish Law have not changed. What has changed is that we are no longer under bondage to the ENTIRE law. Sin is still sin - immorality is still immorality - murder is still murder, lying is still lying. And we know that these are morally wrong because the LAW told us so, and the NT refers us back to the Law as proof that they are indeed STILL wrong.
It really is that simple!
(PS - still waiting on a discussion of Matthew 22:37-40, and its primary source of Duet 6, and how that relates to the Christian. According to James, Larry, and Greg, it is no longer authoritative!)
In Christ,
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
You just refuse to answer a direct question. Your posting of a bunch of verses that doesn’t prove anything. You start with your believe then cherry pick verses. I prefer to start with scripture and then form a conclusion. Your approach explains much.
Until you can explain how you consistently choose which laws are moral and which aren’t other than how smart you are, I am done.
1 Kings 8:60 - so that all the peoples of the earth may know that the LORD is God and that there is no other.
Your response to me above is a pretty long and convoluted response to a simple issue. The NT declares that we are not longer under the Law. The NT declares that if you keep any of it, you have to keep all of it.
What else is there to talk about?
You later say, I counted 20 separate passages that i have quoted or cited in defense of my position. Between Larry and James, I counted 3 - just three. … I cannot accept your three points supported by one verse each. That doesn’t work for me. If your position is true, you should have absolutely no problem pulling up SEVERAL Scriptures for each point.
Where do we find any scriptural basis for saying that God must say something several times in order for it to be true? Again, your whole approach to truth seems misguided here, at best. The truth is that if something is stated in the Bible, it is true, even if only stated once.
Furthermore, citing Scripture 20 times or 100 times means nothing if you don’t use Scripture rightly. And if you go back to the beginning, that was my whole point: We have no grounds to misuse Scripture in order to prevent people from misunderstanding something or doing something wrong.
The truth is that we have posted Scripture and referenced Scripture. You have been asked several times to use Scripture to point out this moral/ceremonial/civil distinction and you have refused. You simply respond with “It’s obvious.” Well, apparently not. So it is my view that you need to actually show where God said what you say. I have shown where God says what I say. In Gal 3 he says we are no longer under the Law; in Gal 5 he says if you keep any of it you have to keep all of it.
Let me quickly hit the rest of your post here.
And I have asked you to define that “authority,” and you have not as yet.Yes, I did. I said the character of God and the NT.
I am worried that you have a huge disconnect between you and the average Joe.What you are worried about and what I am worried about are two different things. I am worried about Scripture being handled properly, and my point is that you have no authority to say something untrue in order to help average Joe understand it. It’s a noble goal to be sure, but not one that can be reached by misusing Scripture. Average Joe is not under the authority of the ten commandments, even if you preach them really long and really loud. And if he has little to no ability in critical or analytical thinking then teach him what the Bible says.
You criticize “highly philosophical and speculative presentation of Scripture” while insisting on dividing the Law. And yet the Scripture gives no basis for this division. It is highly philosophical and speculative.
Paul broke the 10 commandments apart from the rest, and in fact he broke the last 5 from the first 5!So doesn’t this destroy your whole point? The ten commandments aren’t authoritative. Only the last five are. Except they are simply expressions of what it means to love your neighbor as yourself, something that is clearly outside the ten commandments. It is the “royal law of love” to which every believer is responsible.
And in fact you have already stipulated that the ten commandments aren’t actually binding because you admit that the Sabbath commandment is not binding. So you start off saying 10, then go to 9, and now down to 5. That trajectory is great if you are playing golf; not so much if you are dealing with the authority of Scripture.
My question - which nobody has answered - is by what authority do you teach that murder is wrong, if not by the 10 commandments?Creation, the image of God in man, love your neighbor as yourself, specific condemnations of murder in various places in Scripture. .
If you answer, “By the authority of the NT teachings,” then my response is that the authority of the NT Teachings is derived from the 10 commandments!And you would be wrong. The authority of NT teaching is derived from the character of God and the revelation of God.
Now, I will agree that there is a distinction to be observed between Israel and the Church.And this destroys your whole point becasue the Law was for Israel, not the church. You live in Texas right? Do you really believe that you would be charged with breaking a Michigan law while committing a crime in the state of Texas? Even if that act were also a crime in Michigan? Of course not. You would be charged with breaking the law in the place in which you committed the act.
However, Stealing was still stealing before the LawAgain, this destroys your whole point because it shows we don’t need the Law to condemn stealing.
And that wordliness includes covetousness (law!), lying (law!), stealing (law!), disobedience to parents (law!), cursing (law!), etc.Again, you miss the point. These things are sins outside the Law of Israel. You don’t need the Law of Israel to condemn any of them. You can show them all to be sin without any reference to the ten commandments.
Where is it? What is it? I gave several direct references. I expect the same in return.The Bible. I have referenced a number of places.
But you DO have a responsibility to be as plain and clear as possible to avoid misunderstandings and misinterpretations. You can’t hide behind this excuse. We (I include myself here) cannot regulate how people interpret what we say, but we can remove much of the misinterpretation and misunderstanding by being precise, plain, succint, and clear. Failure to do so only helps them misunderstand. It is relevant!I agree with all of this. The problem is that you are being confusing on the Law. You say we are under the authority of the ten commandments, but not the rest but you are not showing where God said that. You are saying that we are under the authority of the ten commandments, except not the fourth one (that’s the Sabbath day); so it’s really only nine. Then you quote Paul using only five of them. You are not being precise, plain, succinct, or clear in your assertion that there is this threefold division of the Law. There are simply numerous issues where you are breaking your own rules here.
Consider this threefold division of the Law. There is no doubt that there are parts that are moral, and parts that are ceremonial, and parts that are civil. The doubt is that the Law can be divided with respect to obedience. You have given no biblical reason why Israel had to keep it all but we only have to keep part. The fact is that when Israel broke a ceremonial law, it was sin and there were consequences, just like breaking a moral law. You can’t just pick and choose here.
And yet you have not specifically demonstrated by what authority you can proclaim that murder was wrong, without ending up with a reference to the 10 commandments. Every NT reference inevitably leads us back there.Simply false. Look at 1 John 3:10 where the sin of Cain in murdering Abel is referenced. That doesn’t reach back to the Ten commandments. It goes back before them. The sin of murder is defined with reference to something prior to the ten commandments by a minimum of 2500 years. In fact, if you don’t assume that every reference to murder or adultery or stealing is a reference to the ten commandments, you actually have very few NT references to the ten commandments.
Now, gentlemen, I have seen a lot of philsophical arguments, but I have not seen very much documentation from Scripture to support your position.I think your position has no merit in Scripture, and you have given no reason to believe otherwise. Declaring your position strongly does not make it true. Saying that we haven’t defended our position does not make it so.
The Bible teaches that we are not under the law.
I have an answer to that question. Jesus is demonstrating that whole Law “hangs on” loving God with all that you are and loving others. The Law taught Israel how to do that in their covenant community. We are taught how to do that in other ways. We do not need the Law for that because we don’t live in the covenant community of Israel.
But I seriously do not see how you can appeal to this. It sounds to me like you want to pick and choose which parts of the Bible apply directly to us and do away with the rest of it.
And with that, I think I will try to bow out here unless something is particularly noteworthy that I have not yet addressed.
[James K] Stephen, you keep referring to how simple it is but can’t explain with any kind of consistency why you choose which laws are and aren’t moral. There are plenty of covenantists who disagree with each other over what is and isn’t a moral law. Theonomists still want the civil portions kept as well since they too are moral.Are you smarter than a 5th grader?
You just refuse to answer a direct question. Your posting of a bunch of verses that doesn’t prove anything. You start with your believe then cherry pick verses. I prefer to start with scripture and then form a conclusion. Your approach explains much.
Until you can explain how you consistently choose which laws are moral and which aren’t other than how smart you are, I am done.
I don’t mean that in a derogatory way. I am saying that any child can tell the difference between moral laws and ceremonial laws. It really isn’t all that complicated.
Now, the fact is that I DID provide several NT references that should help point you in the right direction in regards to morals.
You yourself have admitted that there ARE distinctions, you just don’t know how to classify them. Suggestion - drop all the theological books on the subject, get out your Bible, read Exodus - Deuteronomy, ask God the Holy Spirit to show you the truth on the matter (John 14:26, John 16:13), and see what you come up with. I believe the distinctions will jump out at you. They really are that simple.
You are arguing that I have not provided Scripture. I have provided 20 to your 3….hhmmmmmm So who is starting with Scripture, and who isn’t?
I am simply astounded that you don’t know what is moral/immoral.
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[Larry] Stephen,Please provide the quote where I say that we are under the Law! I have not said that. All I have said is that the moral aspects of the Law have not changed. Sin is still sin, murder is still murder, stealing is still stealing, lying is still lying, adultery is still adultery.
Your response to me above is a pretty long and convoluted response to a simple issue. The NT declares that we are not longer under the Law. The NT declares that if you keep any of it, you have to keep all of it.
What else is there to talk about?
Where do we find any scriptural basis for saying that God must say something several times in order for it to be true? Again, your whole approach to truth seems misguided here, at best. The truth is that if something is stated in the Bible, it is true, even if only stated once.Tell it to the judge, Larry. Try going to court with one piece of evidence and see how far you get.
When the Jews asked Jesus for proof of His authority, He gave them 3 proofs. (See John 5:31-47). Now, each proof by itself was true, but by themselves, each proof was not enough to meet the criteria by which to convince anyone else. Larry, if you offer me one verse to prove your case, it isn’t enough. If it is true, then the Lord will repeat it throughout the Scriptures. I don’t know of ANY doctrine that you or I hold to that we only have ONE Scripture for support. Contrariwise, every cult tenaciously clings to their ONE verse, then they twist and pervert that ONE verse to their own destruction.
Deuteronomy 17:6 At the mouth of two witnesses, or three witnesses, shall he that is worthy of death be put to death; but at the mouth of one witness he shall not be put to death.
Jesus Christ takes this principle out of context, and applies it to Church Discipline:\
Matthew 18:16 But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.
Therefore, ONE witness is not enough - not in theology, not in court, not anywhere. It simply won’t work, Larry.
Let me quickly hit the rest of your post here.
Larry, I asked for specific references. this is a generalization, and it is very vague.And I have asked you to define that “authority,” and you have not as yet.Yes, I did. I said the character of God and the NT.
Judge: Which law has the defendant violated.
Prosecuting Attorney: Your honor, the defendant has broken the law.
Judge: Which law?
P.A.: The law has been broken, the defendant must be punished.
Judge: But which law has been broken?
P.A.: Your honor, the defendant has violated the law….
Kinda endless isn’t it? How much patience will the Judge have in that case?
I asked you to define sin Scripturally for the NT Christian. You did not provide a SCRIPTURAL DEFINITION, nor did you provide any references or passages in your defence! The NT? WOW! So should we be cutting off hands, and putting out eyes? (Matthew 5!) The answer is far too broad, general and vague.
Larry, you are talking in circles here. You say this is the “royal law of love” and “every believer is responsible” to observe this, yet its roots and origins are in the OT Law…..not following your reasoning here!Paul broke the 10 commandments apart from the rest, and in fact he broke the last 5 from the first 5!So doesn’t this destroy your whole point? The ten commandments aren’t authoritative. Only the last five are. Except they are simply expressions of what it means to love your neighbor as yourself, something that is clearly outside the ten commandments. It is the “royal law of love” to which every believer is responsible.
And in fact you have already stipulated that the ten commandments aren’t actually binding because you admit that the Sabbath commandment is not binding. So you start off saying 10, then go to 9, and now down to 5. That trajectory is great if you are playing golf; not so much if you are dealing with the authority of Scripture.Murder is still murder, stealing is still stealing, lying is still lying, homosexuality is still an abomination, disobedience to parents is still sin, etc. etc. etc.
You are missing the point.My question - which nobody has answered - is by what authority do you teach that murder is wrong, if not by the 10 commandments?Creation, the image of God in man, love your neighbor as yourself, specific condemnations of murder in various places in Scripture. .
1. You have admitted that the 10 commandments have bearing in this case.
2. The 10 commandments fit the bill here - it specifically condemns murder.
3. Murder is only one of the 10.
So the 10 commandments are not a revelation of God, and don’t reveal the character of God? The entire Scriptures from Genesis to Revelation is the revelation of God, and the OT reveals much more of God’s character than the NT. Another vague answer that does not meet the demands of specific verses and passages.If you answer, “By the authority of the NT teachings,” then my response is that the authority of the NT Teachings is derived from the 10 commandments!And you would be wrong. The authority of NT teaching is derived from the character of God and the revelation of God.
By making the Hyper-distinction between Israel and the Church, you have tossed out the universal application of the law. Just because the OT Law codified many things for Israel does not diminsh that universal reality and application of certain aspects of that Law. Murder is universally wrong, as is stealing, lying, covetousness, disobedience. etc.Now, I will agree that there is a distinction to be observed between Israel and the Church.And this destroys your whole point becasue the Law was for Israel, not the church. You live in Texas right? Do you really believe that you would be charged with breaking a Michigan law while committing a crime in the state of Texas? Even if that act were also a crime in Michigan? Of course not. You would be charged with breaking the law in the place in which you committed the act.
All I am saying Larry, is that while the 10 commandments codified them for the Jew, those moral laws are still moral laws!
Where is it? What is it? I gave several direct references. I expect the same in return.The Bible. I have referenced a number of places.Larry, I have checked this thread - it was not until the very end here that you gave any DIRECT references, and before that James only gave three. The Bible? That is all you have? Be specific, Larry! Please!
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[Larry]I have an answer to that question. Jesus is demonstrating that whole Law “hangs on” loving God with all that you are and loving others. The Law taught Israel how to do that in their covenant community. We are taught how to do that in other ways. We do not need the Law for that because we don’t live in the covenant community of Israel.Where, Larry, where? can you provide specific examples that do not end up pointing us back to the OT Law?But I seriously do not see how you can appeal to this. It sounds to me like you want to pick and choose which parts of the Bible apply directly to us and do away with the rest of it.1. II Timothy 2:15 - “rightly dividing the word of truth”
2. Actually, the reverse is true. You seem to be dismissing the entire OT, at least from Exodus-deuteronomy as not applicable to the Christian in any way. This is absurd on the face of it. Have you seen the dismal answers to the thread on Leviticus? I am shocked that very few have very little to say on that book, and it demonstrates that too many in our fundamental circles have adopted your view. II Timothy 3:16-17 tell us that ALL Scripture - including the OT - is profitable for DOCTRINE - it is all profitable for us, Larry, but you seem to think it is not.And with that, I think I will try to bow out here unless something is particularly noteworthy that I have not yet addressed.I agree with you - we are simply rehashing what we have already said.
In Christ,
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
1. This whole idea that for us to believe something it has to be addressed in more than one passage of Scripture is something you brought up before and we challenged you on it. I’ve never heard anything like this before—not from any pastor I’ve sat under, not from any Bible college or seminary professor, not from any theology book of any kind. I certainly don’t find it in the Bible. If God says it even once, it is true. unlike a court of law, God does not require 2 or 3 witnesses to validate His Word. I urge you to reconsider this novel idea.
2. I must not be smarter than a fifth grader, because I cannot figure out which of the laws I asked you about above are moral, which are civil, and which are ceremonial. In other words, which of the laws are we still obligated to follow? I’d really like to know because I really want to obey God! Again, if it’s so easy, please take a few seconds of your time and enlighten me. If you can’t or won’t, I must question whether it’s really that easy after all.
3. What if I told you that I could list 4,000 verses of Scripture that support my position? Of course you would want to know what they are, and you would want to examine them to see if they really do support my position. In other words, as Larry has pointed out, it doesn’t matter if you have referred to more Scripture references if they really don’t prove your point.
4. Let me point to some passages of Scripture that clearly state that the OT Law has been abrogated.
2 Cor 3:4-11These verses show us that the old covenant, specifically that which was “engraved in letters on stone” (the Ten Commandments) has faded away with the coming of the new covenant, the ministry of the Spirit, which lasts.
Such confidence as this is ours through Christ before God. 5 Not that we are competent in ourselves to claim anything for ourselves, but our competence comes from God. 6 He has made us competent as ministers of a new covenant- — not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life.
7 Now if the ministry that brought death, which was engraved in letters on stone, came with glory, so that the Israelites could not look steadily at the face of Moses because of its glory, fading though it was, 8 will not the ministry of the Spirit be even more glorious? 9 If the ministry that condemns men is glorious, how much more glorious is the ministry that brings righteousness! 10 For what was glorious has no glory now in comparison with the surpassing glory. 11 And if what was fading away came with glory, how much greater is the glory of that which lasts!
Rom 10:4Larry has already mentioned this verse, which clearly says Christ is the end of the law. Christ is the “end of the law” because He fulfilled it (Mt. 5:17).
Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.
By the way, the Jews to whom the Law was given never insisted on categorizing the laws as moral, civil, or ceremonial. The Law was viewed as a unit. As Larry has pointed out, James also viewed the law as a unit (James 4:10).
Rom 9:3-4Here Paul says that the Law was given to the people of Israel, but it was not given to the Gentiles (Rom. 2:14).
For I could wish that I myself were cursed and cut off from Christ for the sake of my brothers, those of my own race, 4 the people of Israel. Theirs is the adoption as sons; theirs the divine glory, the covenants, the receiving of the law, the temple worship and the promises.
5. What authority are we under today? Galatians 6:2 answers this question:
Gal 6:2We are under the Law of Christ (aka “the law of the Spirit of life in Christ” — Rom. 8:2) which we find in the NT.
Carry each other’s burdens, and in this way you will fulfill the law of Christ.
Let me quote Charles Ryrie:
The Mosaic Law was one of several codes of ethical conduct that God has given throughout human history. That particular code contained 613 commandments. There have also been other codes. Adam lived under laws, the sum of which may be called the code of Adam or the code of Eden. Noah was expected to obey the laws of God, so there was a Noahic code. We know that God revealed many commands and laws to Abraham (Gen. 26:5). They may be called the Abrahamic code. The Mosaic code conotained all the laws of the Law. And today we live under the law of Christ (Gal. 6:2) or the law of the Spirit of life in Christ (Rom. 8:2). This code contains the hundreds of specific commandments recorded in the New Testament.
The Mosaic Law was done away in its entirety as a code. It has been replaced by the law of Christ. The law of Christ contains some new commands (1 Tim. 4:4), some old ones (Rom. 13:9), and some revised ones (Rom. 13:4, with reference to capital punishment). All the laws of the Mosaic code have been abolished because the code has. Specific Mosaic commands that are part of the Christian code appear there not as a continuation of part of the Mosaic Law, or in order to be observed in some deeper sense, but as specifically incorporated into that code, and as such they are binding on believers today. A particular law that was part of the Mosaic code is done away; that same law, if part of the law of Christ, is binding. (Basic Theology, p. 351-352)
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Greg Long, Ed.D. (SBTS)
Pastor of Adult Ministries
Grace Church, Des Moines, IA
Adjunct Instructor
School of Divinity
Liberty University
Please provide the quote where I say that we are under the Law!In post #5 you said Therefore we ARE under the authority of the 10 commandments, That is what it means to be “under the Law.” It means to be under its authority—subject to its demands and liable for its punishments.
All I have said is that the moral aspects of the Law have not changed.No that is not all you said. Go back and read your posts. They are quite lengthy. They are more than one sentence.
Sin is still sin, murder is still murder, stealing is still stealing, lying is still lying, adultery is still adultery.That has never been a point of disagreement.
Tell it to the judge, Larry. Try going to court with one piece of evidence and see how far you get.So you maintain that a single statement from God is not trustworthy? That he must say it more than once? So on what basis then did he hold Adam responsible for a command he gave only one time? God expected Adam to know that his single command was authoritative.
Larry, if you offer me one verse to prove your case, it isn’t enough.This is a denial of biblical inspiration. God inspired it; therefore it’s true, no matter how many times it is said.
Larry, I asked for specific references. this is a generalization, and it is very vague.The whole Bible, Stephen. Don’t be obtuse. I am not giving specific references to define every sin in Scripture. I don’t even have to do that for people who aren’t pastors.
Kinda endless isn’t it? How much patience will the Judge have in that case?We are not in a court, and I don’t think I need to argue the character of God with another pastor.
I asked you to define sin Scripturally for the NT Christian. You did not provide a SCRIPTURAL DEFINITION, nor did you provide any references or passages in your defence!The whole Bible, Stephen. Sin is defined by the totality of God’s revelation as directed to people in their particular times. It is measured by his right standard that flows from his character. Again, this is introductory theology. Romans 3:23 defines it as falling short of the glory of God.
Larry, you are talking in circles here. You say this is the “royal law of love” and “every believer is responsible” to observe this, yet its roots and origins are in the OT LawNo it’s not rooted in the OT Law. It’s roots are in the character of God and the creation of man in God’s image. God’s Law in the OT was the expression of his character and expectations for people in that time. It was our schoolmaster to bring us to the time of faith.
Murder is still murder, stealing is still stealing, lying is still lying, homosexuality is still an abomination, disobedience to parents is still sin, etc. etc. etc.Never in dispute.
1. You have admitted that the 10 commandments have bearing in this case.Where?
2. The 10 commandments fit the bill here - it specifically condemns murder.So? So does the law of Michigan, Texas, the United States, Iraq, Iran, and a bunch of other places. But we are under responsible for breaking the laws of jurisdictions that have authority over us. Unless you are in Israel, Israel’s Law does not have authority over you. I can understand a covenantalist trying to make this argument. I don’t understand a dispensationalist trying to make it.
3. Murder is only one of the 10.So? It is also only one of 613. Why don’t you insist on them? Because you are picking and choosing arbitrarily.
So the 10 commandments are not a revelation of God, and don’t reveal the character of God?Of course they do. They reveal his character and will to a particular people at a particular time. We are not that people and this is not that time.
By making the Hyper-distinction between Israel and the Church, you have tossed out the universal application of the law.The Law was never universal. It was always particular. There is a law that flows from the character of God. The Law was only an expression of that Law for a particular time.
All I am saying Larry, is that while the 10 commandments codified them for the JewExactly my point. They didn’t codify them for anyone else.
those moral laws are still moral laws!But they are laws apart from the ten commandments.
Larry, I have checked this thread - it was not until the very end here that you gave any DIRECT references, and before that James only gave three.I didn’t think that in talking to another pastor I needed to spell out these introductory matters.
The Bible? That is all you have?That’s it.
Where, Larry, where? can you provide specific examples that do not end up pointing us back to the OT Law?I did … I cited 1 John 3 where murder is defined as sin by referencing Cain who lived at least 2500 years before the Law. It is impossible for that to reference the Law. Second, you can look at passages like Hebrews 10:24-25 about forsaking the assembling of yourselves together. That does not point back to the Law because it is about the church which didn’t exist.
II Timothy 2:15 - “rightly dividing the word of truth”I think you should do this, but you aren’t.
You seem to be dismissing the entire OT, at least from Exodus-deuteronomy as not applicable to the Christian in any way.No I am not.
Have you seen the dismal answers to the thread on Leviticus?Yes. I even quoted you from there to show that you are being inconsistent here.
I am shocked that very few have very little to say on that book, and it demonstrates that too many in our fundamental circles have adopted your view.Not at all. It more likely demonstrates that no one is interested at present in discussing that. But if people adopt my view that would be a good thing.
II Timothy 3:16-17 tell us that ALL Scripture - including the OT - is profitable for DOCTRINE - it is all profitable for us, Larry, but you seem to think it is not.That’s simply wrong, Stephen. I do believe it is profitable. I think it must be rightly understood to be profitable and that is my point.
We don’t get to make up our own theology in order to strive for profitability. It is only profitable when it is understood rightly.
[Greg Long] 1. This whole idea that for us to believe something it has to be addressed in more than one passage of Scripture is something you brought up before and we challenged you on it. I’ve never heard anything like this before—not from any pastor I’ve sat under, not from any Bible college or seminary professor, not from any theology book of any kind. I certainly don’t find it in the Bible. If God says it even once, it is true. unlike a court of law, God does not require 2 or 3 witnesses to validate His Word. I urge you to reconsider this novel idea.Does it make it any less true simply because you have never heard it? I gave you the verses on this matter; here is more:
Isa 28:9 ¶ Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts.
Isa 28:10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:
Isa 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
Isa 28:12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
Isa 28:13 But the word of the LORD was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken.
Here is the important distinction to make when you attempt to understand my position on this: I am NOT saying that any ONE statement by itself in the Bible is not true. I am saying that in order to build a believable, credible, and reasonable position by anyone’s standards, we need more than one support.
And by the way, Larry, this IS a legal matter - salvation is LEGAL. Note all the legal language - justification, redemption, and even SIN (the transgression of the LAW!)
Greg, I gave you the example of Jesus Christ Himself in John 5. He gave 3 proofs of His statements. Each proof by itself was true. But He knew what the Law required - 2-3 witnesses. So He gave 3 witnesses. I don’t see why it is so unreasonable for me to ask for more than one witness.
2. I must not be smarter than a fifth grader, because I cannot figure out which of the laws I asked you about above are moral, which are civil, and which are ceremonial. In other words, which of the laws are we still obligated to follow? I’d really like to know because I really want to obey God! Again, if it’s so easy, please take a few seconds of your time and enlighten me. If you can’t or won’t, I must question whether it’s really that easy after all.Not getting into that argument of classification, Greg - do you mean to tell me that you cannot distinguish what is immoral? I find that hard to believe!
3. What if I told you that I could list 4,000 verses of Scripture that support my position? Of course you would want to know what they are, and you would want to examine them to see if they really do support my position. In other words, as Larry has pointed out, it doesn’t matter if you have referred to more Scripture references if they really don’t prove your point.My point was not how much I listed, but how much has been said against my position without Scriptural support. If you want to prove your point, then provide Scripture - and plenty of it!
4. Let me point to some passages of Scripture that clearly state that the OT Law has been abrogated.Hey - now we are getting somewhere!
Look, I believe there is huge misunderstanding here. I agree that the Law cannot save us. I believe that the OT Jew was required to keep the ENTIRE LAW! If I am understanding everyone here, I think we are agreed on those points, right?
So, the Law was ineffectual when it comes to salvation.
But when Christ did away with the Law through His salvatory work on Calvary, it did not change the fact the sodomy was sin, or murder, stealing, lying, coveting, adultery, etc., et al. Those things are STILL sin. That is all I am saying.
Rom 10:4 Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes. Larry has already mentioned this verse, which clearly says Christ is the end of the law. Christ is the “end of the law” because He fulfilled it (Mt. 5:17).I am not discussing salvation. So Romans 10:4 is a great verse to show the inadequacy of the Law in regards to salvation. I understand that. Does that change the fact that murder is still murder, stealing is still stealing, etc? No, it does not. It is just as wrong for a Christian to steal as it was for an OT Jew to steal.
5. What authority are we under today? Galatians 6:2 answers this question:Paul summarizes this for us in Romans 13:9-10 - a direct quotation from the 10 commandments.
The Mosaic Law was done away in its entirety as a code. It has been replaced by the law of Christ. The law of Christ contains some new commands (1 Tim. 4:4), some old ones (Rom. 13:9), and some revised ones (Rom. 13:4, with reference to capital punishment). All the laws of the Mosaic code have been abolished because the code has. Specific Mosaic commands that are part of the Christian code appear there not as a continuation of part of the Mosaic Law, or in order to be observed in some deeper sense, but as specifically incorporated into that code, and as such they are binding on believers today. A particular law that was part of the Mosaic code is done away; that same law, if part of the law of Christ, is binding. (Basic Theology, p. 351-352)This is a nice summary of your view….I guess I just can’t see how something has been “abolished” if it was in force before the Law, during the Law, and after the Law. To me, this speaks to the universal application of certain moral Laws that the Creator gave to all mankind for all time. I would say that just because they were codified in the Jewish Law during the OT dispensation does not diminish their universal application to all men for all time, including today. We certainly can cite the 10 commandments as authoritative - they reveal the character of God on those points. Paul cited them as authoritative - why can’t I?
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[Larry] Alright, I said I wasn’t going to do this, but here goes yet again.I think there is a new disease we should register with the CDC - addictimus forumitis!!!
But I believe I have provided plenty of clarification on that….Please provide the quote where I say that we are under the Law!In post #5 you said Therefore we ARE under the authority of the 10 commandments, That is what it means to be “under the Law.” It means to be under its authority—subject to its demands and liable for its punishments.
I refer you to my response to Greg on this….Tell it to the judge, Larry. Try going to court with one piece of evidence and see how far you get.So you maintain that a single statement from God is not trustworthy? That he must say it more than once? So on what basis then did he hold Adam responsible for a command he gave only one time? God expected Adam to know that his single command was authoritative.
Adam - a unique case. A sinless man in a perfect environment….I don’t think that you can make the corollary to today’s environment some 6,000 some odd years after Adam fell.
Considering the nature of the argument, it would certainly lend to your credibility, at least from my point of view. I listed several verses giving the Scriptural definition of sin. Why can’t you? This is a Bible forum, right? Why leave yourself open like that?Larry, I asked for specific references. this is a generalization, and it is very vague.The whole Bible, Stephen. Don’t be obtuse. I am not giving specific references to define every sin in Scripture. I don’t even have to do that for people who aren’t pastors.
Salvation is a legal issue, and so is the OT Law.Kinda endless isn’t it? How much patience will the Judge have in that case?We are not in a court, and I don’t think I need to argue the character of God with another pastor.
The whole Bible, Stephen. Sin is defined by the totality of God’s revelation as directed to people in their particular times. It is measured by his right standard that flows from his character. Again, this is introductory theology. Romans 3:23 defines it as falling short of the glory of God.Too broad…anyone can define anything the way they choose to do it with that broad generalization. I am speaking specifically, I ask you to do the same.
But you overlooked this verse in the same passage:Where, Larry, where? can you provide specific examples that do not end up pointing us back to the OT Law?I did … I cited 1 John 3 where murder is defined as sin by referencing Cain who lived at least 2500 years before the Law. It is impossible for that to reference the Law. Second, you can look at passages like Hebrews 10:24-25 about forsaking the assembling of yourselves together. That does not point back to the Law because it is about the church which didn’t exist.
1 John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
We don’t get to make up our own theology in order to strive for profitability. It is only profitable when it is understood rightly.That is why we are having this discussion, right? So that we can come to a better understanding of Scripture?
In Christ,
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[Stephen Schwenke]I’ve asked simply. I’ve asked as clearly as I could. I’ve asked repeatedly. And yet you are still unable to tell me which of the laws I listed above are moral, and therefore still binding, and which are merely civil or ceremonial, and therefore not binding. I rest my case.[Greg Long] 2. I must not be smarter than a fifth grader, because I cannot figure out which of the laws I asked you about above are moral, which are civil, and which are ceremonial. In other words, which of the laws are we still obligated to follow? I’d really like to know because I really want to obey God! Again, if it’s so easy, please take a few seconds of your time and enlighten me. If you can’t or won’t, I must question whether it’s really that easy after all.Not getting into that argument of classification, Greg - do you mean to tell me that you cannot distinguish what is immoral? I find that hard to believe!
And you even twist my words to try to deflect the questions. I never said anything about the laws being immoral. I asked you to tell me which are moral, and therefore binding, and which are merely civil or ceremonial, and therefore not binding. Please don’t twist my words.
[Stephen Schwenke] This is a nice summary of your view….I guess I just can’t see how something has been “abolished” if it was in force before the Law, during the Law, and after the Law. To me, this speaks to the universal application of certain moral Laws that the Creator gave to all mankind for all time. I would say that just because they were codified in the Jewish Law during the OT dispensation does not diminish their universal application to all men for all time, including today. We certainly can cite the 10 commandments as authoritative - they reveal the character of God on those points. Paul cited them as authoritative - why can’t I?So you believe Christians today must keep the Sabbath? It’s one of the Ten Commandments that you say are “authoritative” with “universal application to all men for all time, including today.”
-------
Greg Long, Ed.D. (SBTS)
Pastor of Adult Ministries
Grace Church, Des Moines, IA
Adjunct Instructor
School of Divinity
Liberty University
You said to me, “I am simply astounded that you don’t know what is moral/immoral.”
Stephen, I have never said I don’t know what is and isn’t moral, ever. I am asking you to tell me what the basis for your distinction between what is moral and what isn’t. So far you have appealed to your personal smarts, your son’s smarts, the smarts of a 5th grader, and prayer.
Deut 24
1 “If a man marries a woman, but she becomes displeasing to him because he finds something improper about her, he may write her a divorce certificate, hand it to her, and send her away from his house.
2 If after leaving his house she goes and becomes another man’s wife,
3 and the second man hates her, writes her a divorce certificate, hands it to her, and sends her away from his house or if he dies,
4 the first husband who sent her away may not marry her again after she has been defiled, because that would be detestable to the Lord. You must not bring guilt on the land the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance.
I will try one more time with you. Please stay focused this time.
1. Was divorce a moral or civil law?
2. If it was moral, is it identical to NT law about morality?
3. If it was civil, is it still binding on believers today?
1 Kings 8:60 - so that all the peoples of the earth may know that the LORD is God and that there is no other.
[Stephen Schwenke] Not getting into that argument of classification, Greg - do you mean to tell me that you cannot distinguish what is immoral? I find that hard to believe!I can certainly see the difficulty in establishing what is immoral. Oh, the commands repeated in the NT are easy to see, since they are repeated and thus would be included in the “law of Christ.” It is easy to see that the feasts and holy days are done away with, since those are specifically mentioned as being done away with. But I want to ask about just one command that is not repeated or specifically done away with, and your reasoning with this command will help me see how you might handle any other. Lev. 19:28 prohibits tattoos, and when I was growing up, I was always taught that tattoos were wrong because the Bible says so. So my question is: Is getting a tatoo immoral? Is the prohibition against tattoos part of the moral code that hasn’t changed, or was the prohibition part of the ceremonial guidelines that the Israelites had to keep? Thanks in advance for your response.
[Greg Long]I’ve asked simply. I’ve asked as clearly as I could. I’ve asked repeatedly. And yet you are still unable to tell me which of the laws I listed above are moral, and therefore still binding, and which are merely civil or ceremonial, and therefore not binding. I rest my case.Greg, I am not deviating from the OP which dealt specifically with the 10 commandments. My initial response was to James who stated that the 10 commandments are not authoritative for the Christian, and that anyone who taught they were authoritative was not teaching the “whole counsel of God.” It is not my intention to get into a running dog-fight over which of the rest of the OT Law is moral, civil, or ceremonial. The issue for this thread is the 10 commandments.So you believe Christians today must keep the Sabbath? It’s one of the Ten Commandments that you say are “authoritative” with “universal application to all men for all time, including today.”I have responded to the Sabbath several times. Leviticus 23 clearly places in with part of the ceremonial aspects. Paul cites the moral laws many times over as authoritative, and I provided those references for everyone to see. However, he never exhorts the believer to observe the Sabbath or feasts days. In fact he deals directly with that issue in Col. 2 as I have already stated.
I am not avoiding your question, Greg. I am simply trying to stay on topic.
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[Kevin Miller] I can certainly see the difficulty in establishing what is immoral. Oh, the commands repeated in the NT are easy to see, since they are repeated and thus would be included in the “law of Christ.” It is easy to see that the feasts and holy days are done away with, since those are specifically mentioned as being done away with. But I want to ask about just one command that is not repeated or specifically done away with, and your reasoning with this command will help me see how you might handle any other. Lev. 19:28 prohibits tattoos, and when I was growing up, I was always taught that tattoos were wrong because the Bible says so. So my question is: Is getting a tatoo immoral? Is the prohibition against tattoos part of the moral code that hasn’t changed, or was the prohibition part of the ceremonial guidelines that the Israelites had to keep? Thanks in advance for your response.Kevin, I really hesitate to answer this on the same grounds I have chosen not to answer Greg’s questions. But i think if we reason through the question, and look for some applicable NT principles (if there are any), understand why the law was given in the first place, and what tatoos have been used for in the past, and even for today, we could probably make that determination. That is about as far as I want to go here - and again, I am not avoiding the issue, I simply don’t want to get so far off track here with nitpicking everything apart that we stray from the original point.
So, Kevin, there may be some “grey areas” that are not so easily identifiable. I accept that.
My only argument on this thread is whether or not the 10 commandments have any “authority” in the Christian’s life. I say they do by the authority of the apostle Paul who quotes them throughout his epistles, with the notable exception to the Sabbath, which he deals with also.
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[James K] Stephen focus. We all agree that morality is something found throughout the Bible. No one is questioning that.James, my “astonishment” was over your statements that you were not “smart enough” to distinguish the moral parts of the law from the ceremonial parts. I don’t buy that - not for five seconds. Maybe you don’t like to make that distinction, but you know what those distinctions are nonetheless.
You said to me, “I am simply astounded that you don’t know what is moral/immoral.”
Stephen, I have never said I don’t know what is and isn’t moral, ever. I am asking you to tell me what the basis for your distinction between what is moral and what isn’t. So far you have appealed to your personal smarts, your son’s smarts, the smarts of a 5th grader, and prayer.
I have not appealed to my personal “smarts.” I have quoted Scripture over and over again showing where Paul refers us back to the OT Law. My determination for what is moral and immoral is the scriptures. Romans 13 seals the case for me, but the other passages i quoted, plus some others I didn’t quote are quite plain as well. These passages show me that Paul is appealing to the authority of the OT Scripture in exhorting the NT Christians in regards to how they should live their lives.
At that time, they had no NT Scriptures. So, what you are arguing could not have worked for them. All they had was the OT Scripture coupled with the one letter they had from Paul. Some of the more fortunate ones may have come in contact with two, or maybe even three of his letters. It is certain that not every local church in Paul’s day had access to every single one of his letters. So your argument is not sufficient for those believers to whom the letters were written. Paul’s authority was the OT Scriptures, in conjunction with the revelation he received directly from the Lord Himself.
Certainly Paul enhances and enlarges on the motives behind the actions, just as Jesus Christ did in Matthew 5-7. But the basic moral laws are still the same.
I will try one more time with you. Please stay focused this time.Let’s not cast aspersions, James. I am focused. The issue is the authority of the 10 commandments. Everyone here seems to have gotten off track with the classification of the rest of the law. We could argue that forever. So I am not going down that road - let’s deal with the main principle at stake here! One thing we do know for sure - we know what is moral and what is immoral - so I fail to see the point of these “classification” questions.
My disagreement with you is over your initial post that the 10 commandments are not authoritative for the Christian, and that anyone who teaches they are is not teaching correct doctrine. (paraphrase.)
In Christ
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[Stephen Schwenke] Kevin, I really hesitate to answer this on the same grounds I have chosen not to answer Greg’s questions. But i think if we reason through the question, and look for some applicable NT principles (if there are any), understand why the law was given in the first place, and what tatoos have been used for in the past, and even for today, we could probably make that determination. That is about as far as I want to go here - and again, I am not avoiding the issue, I simply don’t want to get so far off track here with nitpicking everything apart that we stray from the original point.Stephen, I appreciate your response. After reading what you wrote to Greg, I was thinking you weren’t even going to respond to my question.
So, Kevin, there may be some “grey areas” that are not so easily identifiable. I accept that.
My only argument on this thread is whether or not the 10 commandments have any “authority” in the Christian’s life. I say they do by the authority of the apostle Paul who quotes them throughout his epistles, with the notable exception to the Sabbath, which he deals with also.
Could it be that one’s understanding of the word “authority” is part of the difficulty in the conversation in this thread? It seems to me that you are definitely using the authority of the New Testament as your ultimate guideline in regards to what you would follow from the Old Testament. Your contention would thus be, as I see it, that authoritative statements from the OT would continue as authoritative in the NT. Greg would see the authority of the Mosaic code as ending but the authority of God’s moral code being carried on in ways other than the Mosaic code. So you both agree that God has a moral code, and that moral code continues to this day, but you differ on how “authority” works in regards to the way that code is expressed.
I could also look at it this way. If I am going to preach a message about stealing, should I start with the Old Testament laws about stealing and then bring in Scripture to show that they still apply in the New Testament, or should I start with New Testament verses about stealing and then bring in verses from the Old Testament to show how it was viewed back then? In my mind, I could do it either way, but I would be showing the authority of the New Testament better by doing it the second way. If I was preaching against tattoos, I wouldn’t be able to go much farther than the OT verses, and I don’t think I could use their authority to say that tattoos are sinful for today.
You are right about the example of stealing - you could go either way on it.
The tatoos - I personally think there are enough principles in the NT that could point us to the conclusion that they are sinful - at the very least, extremely unwise.
Thanks!
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
FIRST POINT:
When asked about the greatest commandment, Jesus said:
Matt 22
Love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind and Love your neighbor as yourself. He then said that the whole law and prophets hang on these 2.
So when given the opportunity to say the 10 commandments are the eternal moral law for all people at all times, Jesus declined that route, gave 2 laws not from the decalogue, and then said the whole law including the decalogue hang on the 2. The decalogue can’t be foundational if they hang from something.
SECOND POINT:
2 Cor 3 refers to the 10 commandments as:
1) the ministry of death, chiseled in letters on stones
2) the ministry of condemnation
3) not glorious in this case
4) fading away
This is compared to the current ministry of the Spirit, a ministry of life. Paul was not a minister of the decalogue. He was a minister of the New Covenant. The 10 commandments are NOT a way of life. Paul wasn’t talking about just salvation either.
If you want me to keep going I can. I gave you more than one passage to deal with. Please focus on what has actually been said.
1 Kings 8:60 - so that all the peoples of the earth may know that the LORD is God and that there is no other.
[James K] Alright Stephen, since you insist on dividing the 10 commandments from the rest of the Old Covenant (something you lack any support for), I will play along. Let us examine the NT writings concerning the Law.James
FIRST POINT:
When asked about the greatest commandment, Jesus said:
Matt 22
Love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind and Love your neighbor as yourself. He then said that the whole law and prophets hang on these 2.
So when given the opportunity to say the 10 commandments are the eternal moral law for all people at all times, Jesus declined that route, gave 2 laws not from the decalogue, and then said the whole law including the decalogue hang on the 2. The decalogue can’t be foundational if they hang from something.
SECOND POINT:
2 Cor 3 refers to the 10 commandments as:
1) the ministry of death, chiseled in letters on stones
2) the ministry of condemnation
3) not glorious in this case
4) fading away
This is compared to the current ministry of the Spirit, a ministry of life. Paul was not a minister of the decalogue. He was a minister of the New Covenant. The 10 commandments are NOT a way of life. Paul wasn’t talking about just salvation either.
If you want me to keep going I can. I gave you more than one passage to deal with. Please focus on what has actually been said.
1. Kevin said it all for me….I don’t know why you can’t grasp this simple point.
2. Why should I continue the dialogue when it took me this long to get you to start discussing the actual Scriptures? It isn’t a contest. You are making this a much bigger deal than it is, and you are assuming that my position demands certain things.
3. I was the one who brought Matthew 22 into the discussion, and you declined comment on it. Now you want to bring it in, and demand answers from me? Please….
I have said all I need to say.
In Christ,
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
But I believe I have provided plenty of clarification on that….Having read your “clarification” I find it unconvincing and ultimately, not really even discussing the actual points.
I refer you to my response to Greg on this….I think that is an implicit denial of the biblical teaching of inspiration.
Adam - a unique case. A sinless man in a perfect environment….I don’t think that you can make the corollary to today’s environment some 6,000 some odd years after Adam fell.So in a perfect environment, truth only has to be said one time; but in an imperfect environment it has to be said more than once?
Considering the nature of the argument, it would certainly lend to your credibility, at least from my point of view. I listed several verses giving the Scriptural definition of sin. Why can’t you? This is a Bible forum, right? Why leave yourself open like that?I quoted Romans 3:23. In addition, sin is defined all throughout Scripture. I don’t think my credibility is really at stake here.
Salvation is a legal issue, and so is the OT Law.Not in the sense you were appealing to courtroom scenario.I am speaking specificallyActually, I don’t think you are being specific at all. You keep referring to the ten commandments, but you have admitted that there are only nine. You use language of authority and then appear to deny that you are using language of authority. You have so far refused to be specific on the issue of moral/ceremonial distinction, appealing only to a fifth grade intellect. I find that a rather unconvincing method of argumentation. But if a fifth grader can understand it, you should be able to explain shouldn’t you?
So I think there are many things you are not being specific about.But you overlooked this verse in the same passage:Why do you think I ignored that? I think it utterly destroys your point. The fact is that murder was a sin before the Law, and 1 John 3 references it without referring it back to the ten commandments.
1 John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
You fail to answer the question of what “law” is being talked about there. I don’t think “law” in that context is the 10 commandments at all, for the very specific reason that Cain is being talked about and the ten commandment did not have authority over Cain because they did not even exist.
So yes, I think there are numerous problems with your position.
If you contention is that we are bound by the same standards that are expressed in the 10 commandments, I can deal with that. I think it is actually true for the most part. But we are not bound by them because they are in the ten commandments but because they are part of God’s law outside the ten commandments.
You have yet to answer any of my questions despite me answering yours. I am done.
1 Kings 8:60 - so that all the peoples of the earth may know that the LORD is God and that there is no other.
[Larry] I think that is an implicit denial of the biblical teaching of inspiration.Larry - is this comment really necessary? Are you really accusing me of not believing in the inspiration of Scripture? Gimme a break? I know you don’t like me - but this is a little bit over the top, don’t you think? I gave you the Scriptures and the examples. If Jesus Christ thought it was necessary to give three proofs of His claims, then I don’t know why you think one is alright.
In addition, I stated quite clearly that each point by itself IS TRUE.
So, Larry, step down off your high horse there, pardner, and calm down.
If you can’t prove that claim, then you should not make that claim.
If one person told me they saw Elvis downtown today, I would blow them off.
But if 2 or 3 people told me they saw Elvis, and all 3 gave the same independent testimony - time, place, etc. - well, then maybe it is worth looking into.
I never denied the TRUTH of the ONE verse that you supplied - I merely stated that if you want to make a really solid case, you should provide more.
I don’t understand why you get so carried away with this stuff.
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[James K] In other words, you have no answer. For you the decalogue as you pick and choose its application or authority or whatever is up to you. There really is no objective basis higher than yourself.You are wrong here James. The CORRECT conclusion is either
You have yet to answer any of my questions despite me answering yours. I am done.
1. I feel that I have sufficiently answered the question
and/or
2. I don’t feel that any answer would satisfy you, so it would be pointless to continue the discussion.
I have not “picked and chosen” what applies and what doesn’t. I have given much more Scripture from my POV than you have, and if that isn’t clear, then you simply have purposefully chosen NOT to understand my position. (I am not demanding ACCEPTANCE, just UNDERSTANDING.)
My objective basis is myself? What a huge slander! I have repeatedly appealed to Scripture - much more than you have James - and that very precisely and specifically. You keep wanting to expand the discussion to the entire law. I am discussing the 10 commandments, and particularly YOUR statement about the 10 commandments - not the entire Law. I refer to your first statement about how the 10 commandments have NO authority for the Christian and that whoever teaches that they do is not teaching the whole counsel of God.
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
Larry - is this comment really necessary? Are you really accusing me of not believing in the inspiration of Scripture? Gimme a break?Yes, it is necessary because it highlights an implication of your belief. I am not accusing you of not believing in inspiration. That’s why I said “implicit.”
I know you don’t like meWow … I didn’t know that.
I gave you the Scriptures and the examples. If Jesus Christ thought it was necessary to give three proofs of His claims, then I don’t know why you think one is alright.Because God is a truthteller all the time, not just when he repeats something. I don’t know that Christ found it “necessary.”
If you can’t prove that claim, then you should not make that claim.The claim is that “All Scripture is God-breathed,” not just the ones that are repeated.
If one person told me they saw Elvis downtown today, I would blow them off.Seriously? Elvis died in 1977. If two or three people told you they saw him, I would be questioning the people, not the existence of Elvis.
But if 2 or 3 people told me they saw Elvis, and all 3 gave the same independent testimony - time, place, etc. - well, then maybe it is worth looking into.
I don’t understand why you get so carried away with this stuff.What am I carried away with? I don’t even know what that means? I have engaged in a conversation with you, answering your questions and posing some problems with your arguments. If that’s “carried away” then so be it, I guess. But I don’t know what that means.
I think your assertion that the truth of Scripture has to be repeated two or three times is an implicit denial of inspiration. I don’t think you intend that, but I don’t think you have any option. And I can’t imagine it’s even disputable.
[Larry] So in a perfect environment, truth only has to be said one time; but in an imperfect environment it has to be said more than once?I don’t know Larry - maybe you have been reading too much Westcott and Hort???
Build your case, Larry - that is all I am asking.
I quoted Romans 3:23. In addition, sin is defined all throughout Scripture. I don’t think my credibility is really at stake here.The argument here is whether or not the 10 commandments is “authoritative” for the Christian. If it is not, then I would like some concise, Biblical definitions of sin that do not point us back to the 10 commandments, or that are not derived from the 10 commandments. Considering your position as the positive side here, it is your DUTY to prove your point with Scripture - DIRECT Scripture, not the ambiguous “It’s in the Bible” cop out. Prove your point - otherwise your point is rendered invalid.
So I think there are many things you are not being specific about.I gave plenty enough of Scripture to sufficiently illustrate my point. Take the blinders off, Larry.
You fail to answer the question of what “law” is being talked about there. I don’t think “law” in that context is the 10 commandments at all, for the very specific reason that Cain is being talked about and the ten commandment did not have authority over Cain because they did not even exist.Upon WHAT do you base your admitted opinion? You did not prove from Scripture that what you THOUGHT (your word) was indeed Scriptural. But I see how you derive your position - you simply change the definition of “law” as it suits you. After all, if “law” here referred to the 10 commandments, then your position is in jeopardy! So, change it - quick!
(Nice out!)
If you contention is that we are bound by the same standards that are expressed in the 10 commandments, I can deal with that. I think it is actually true for the most part. But we are not bound by them because they are in the ten commandments but because they are part of God’s law outside the ten commandments.Fair enough.
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
[Larry]Larry - did you know that there is more than one definition to “implicit?”Larry - is this comment really necessary? Are you really accusing me of not believing in the inspiration of Scripture? Gimme a break?Yes, it is necessary because it highlights an implication of your belief. I am not accusing you of not believing in inspiration. That’s why I said “implicit.” I think your assertion that the truth of Scripture has to be repeated two or three times is an implicit denial of inspiration. I don’t think you intend that, but I don’t think you have any option. And I can’t imagine it’s even disputable.
You meant it as meaning that my answer “implied” a problem with inspiration, without expressly stating it. So maybe you meant it that I had fallen into a trap with my position that I was not aware of.
I didn’t take it that way, because I generally understand the word to mean “without reservation or doubt, absolute.” I had to check the dictionary to figure out what you meant.
(For the record - BOTH definitions are correct, so neither of us used the word incorrectly, we were simply working off a different definition of the word.)
So can you understand how I took that wrong? I took it as a direct accusation. You meant it as a subtle nudge that maybe my position has problems.
The “Elvis” thing was simply an illustration, Larry - don’t read anything more into than that…but let’s say that you believe that he died in 1977, but it you first heard 2-3 people give you a specific time, place, date, experience where they “saw” Elvis….you might still think them bonkers. But then if you heard a report on the news, with the same details, and a video clip and interview….now what? Well, now you have sufficient evidence to change your belief.
Again, it is just an ILLUSTRATION…
Now - all I am saying with this is that any time you build a case to prove something, it is always best to build a SOLID case with MANY supports.
Anyone can take ONE verse and twist it to mean anything they want it to. Cults are notorious for doing this. This is why I am hesitant to take only ONE verse as a support for someone’s position. If it is true, then there WILL be many supports - surely you recognize that, right? How many verses can ALL of us produce on salvation by grace? The Blood atonement? justification? we all could answer that we could produce MANY verses to support those positions. It is not a question of denying the inspiration of the totality of Scripture, it is a question of determining the validity of a particular verse in support of a particular position.
When I was in management, and I had to deal with the termination of an employee, our HR department demanded sufficient support for termination. It could not be some wild - off-the-wall deal. I had to build an air-tight case. (None of my decisions were ever overturned, either!)
I don’t see the problem in asking you to provide an air-tight case to prove your point from Scripture. Remember, ANYONE can pull ONE verse to prove ANYTHING. It takes thought, discipline, and study to put together the “whole counsel of God” to determine whether or not a particular doctrine is true. We are not discussing the TRUTH of each verse of Scripture - we both agree that ALL SCRIPTURE is given by inspiration. So, why even bring that up? My question to you is if in fact your position represents the “whole counsel of God” it should not be too difficult for you to delve into that “whole counsel of God” and provide OVERWHELMING support for your position.
In other words, Blow me away with your position! Stuff so much Scripture down my throat (nicely please!) on your position that I will be forced to admit that (a) your position is correct, and/or (b) maybe I need to study more, and/or (c) there is another point of view that I need to thoroughly examine to determine the validity of my position. Maybe the answer is somewhere in the middle - but with the vast amount of research provided to me by the opposing view, I owe it to myself to look into this further. That is what I am looking for, because that is what I demand of myself when I teach and preach. I want our people at LBC to derive their authority from Scripture - not from what I say one verse says.
What is wrong with that? Maybe this would be better treated on its own thread???
As to the “I know you don’t like me…” statement, it seems I remember “bumping” into you before here at SI, and we rarely take the same side on anything. It seems like we got into some heated exchanges before - it is too easy to jump to that conclusion, so I apologize. Maybe i was overreacting to the charge that I didn’t believe in the inspiration of Scripture (based on my understanding of the word when I read it.)
In Christ
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
It is because I do not agree with your man made distinction of the 10 commandments from the rest of the law that I didn’t indulge it earlier. Finally I did and you refused to deal with it.
The christian is not under the authority of the 10 commandments. I stand by it and you have yet to prove I am wrong. Posting verses about morality don’t hurt my position, they establish it. God is a moral God and expects people to be moral. God has the freedom to add to and then take away what he expects from people. God is God. The law is not God. The law simply reflects God’s character.
The Israelites had to obey every single law as though it was one of the 10 commandments. They were all equal. The consequences were different, but a violation of any of the law was a violation of the one unit of law given to them. There were no partial lawbreakers. There were only the guilty.
So when Jesus walked the earth, he had the freedom to explain the real principle that transcended the 10 commandments. This is where Matt 22 comes in and where you failed to accurately understand it.
Maybe next time someone asks you to explain how you arrive at a certain position, give them a biblical reason instead of talking about how smart you think you are.
1 Kings 8:60 - so that all the peoples of the earth may know that the LORD is God and that there is no other.
[James K] Stephen, you have not answered my questions….I answered your questions - you didn’t like the answers.
Maybe next time someone asks you to explain how you arrive at a certain position, give them a biblical reason instead of talking about how smart you think you are.
I have not “bragged” about how smart I am…my appeal has been to Scripture throughout.
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
I am not going to answer that
My 14 yo son knows that
Are you smarter than a 5th grader
etc
Maybe you did answer my questions but forgot to post it on here. You have proven my theory that you just pick and choose and have no authority higher than yourself when you do so.
1 Kings 8:60 - so that all the peoples of the earth may know that the LORD is God and that there is no other.
Larry - did you know that there is more than one definition to “implicit?”Yes I did know that, but it never crossed my mind that might think that. It was indeed a subtle nudge that I think your position has some problems that perhaps have not anticipated and do not intend.
Glad we cleared that up. Sorry for the confusion. That was an unforeseen issue.
Now - all I am saying with this is that any time you build a case to prove something, it is always best to build a SOLID case with MANY supports.If you are dealing with fallible humanity, I agree. But I would argue that the Bible is of a different nature. And the point about Elvis ties into that. When facts are established, witnesses to the contrary are clearly wrong, no matter how well intended they might be. There are a number of options about how they can be wrong the same way (conspiracy, personator, insane, infatuated, prank, etc.). The only impossibility is that the fact is wrong. So with Scripture, it is impossible for it to be wrong, even if something is only said once.
Anyone can take ONE verse and twist it to mean anything they want it to.Sure. But that doesn’t mean that they have legitimately done so or that the truth of the one verse is questionable because it isn’t two or three verses. All my point is is that one is enough.
If it is true, then there WILL be many supports - surely you recognize that, right?No, I do not agree with that at all.
I don’t see the problem in asking you to provide an air-tight case to prove your point from Scripture.I don’t either, but an airtight case is Scripture rightly used, even if it’s only one verse.
In the point at hand, the fact that Scripture says that if you keep one part of the Law you must keep it all is all we need. That is clearly the point of Gal 5. Gal 3 says that the Law was a schoolmaster to bring us to the time of faith. If Scripture is inspired and inerrant, we do not need any other testimony because God’s single statement if sufficient. Now certainly other arguments could be mustered, but they are unnecessary.
What is wrong with that? Maybe this would be better treated on its own thread???Probably.
As to the “I know you don’t like me…” statement, it seems I remember “bumping” into you before here at SI, and we rarely take the same side on anything.I honestly don’t remember. I have no issue with you at all. I don’t care if people agree with me or not. To me, it’s simply a discussion that hopefully sharpens us both (and all the rest as well). Nothing personal in the least.
Off to bed now …
[Larry] I honestly don’t remember. I have no issue with you at all. I don’t care if people agree with me or not. To me, it’s simply a discussion that hopefully sharpens us both (and all the rest as well). Nothing personal in the least.Fair enough….moving on!
Off to bed now …
Pastor Steve SchwenkeLiberty Baptist ChurchAmarillo, TX
Now, because of this, my comments may not be of any help. But, here is my understanding of this issue. Anyone’s disagreement with me on this of little personal importance to me.
First, all the 10 Commandments are still in force. Second, believers in the finished work of Christ are effectively exempt from the curse of the Law (Deuteronomy 26:27. Galatians 2:21. Galatians 3:10. Galatians 5:4. 1 John 3:4. James 2:10.)
Jesus taught, “Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach [them] , the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed [the righteousness] of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.” (Matthew 5:17-20.)
The Apostle Paul wrote, “Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.”(Romans 3:31.)
While Jesus as God broke the Sabbath by healing on the Sabbath day. (“Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.” — John 5:18.)
Jesus regarding the future time of trouble, warned the people of Israel, “… But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day: For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.” (Matthew 24:20, 21.) Showing the Sabbath is yet to be observed. The Sabbath observance is still in effect as God commanded it to the people of Israel. The day of the seventh day Sabbath was not changed. It is still on the seventh day of the week, our Saturday.
We as Christians meet to worship God on the first day of the week, which is not a Sabbath or the Sabbath day. (Acts 7:20. 1 Corinthians 16:2.)
As for us as believers observing the Sabbath day or not, we are at liberty either way, as the Apostle Paul wrote, “… Who art thou that judgest another man’s servant? to his own master he standeth or falleth. Yea, he shall be holden up: for God is able to make him stand. One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day [alike]. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. He that regardeth the day, regardeth [it] unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard [it]. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not, to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks. For none of us liveth to himself, and no man dieth to himself. For whether we live, we live unto the Lord; and whether we die, we die unto the Lord: whether we live therefore, or die, we are the Lord’s. For to this end Christ both died, and rose, and revived, that he might be Lord both of the dead and living. But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. For it is written, [As] I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God.” (Romans 14:4-11.)
In my personal reading of the follow text, I understand Christ to be my Sabbath rest, ” Let us fear therefore, lest haply, a promise being left of entering into his rest, any one of you should seem to have come short of it. For indeed we have had good tidings preached unto us, even as also they: but the word of hearing did not profit them, because it was not united by faith with them that heard. For we who have believed do enter into that rest; even as he hath said, As I sware in my wrath, They shall not enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world. For he hath said somewhere of the seventh day on this wise, And God rested on the seventh day from all his works; and in this place again, They shall not enter into my rest. Seeing therefore it remaineth that some should enter thereinto, and they to whom the good tidings were before preached failed to enter in because of disobedience, he again defineth a certain day, To-day, saying in David so long a time afterward (even as hath been said before), To-day if ye shall hear his voice, Harden not your hearts. For if Joshua had given them rest, he would not have spoken afterward of another day. There remaineth therefore a sabbath rest for the people of God. For he that is entered into his rest hath himself also rested from his works, as God did from his. Let us therefore give diligence to enter into that rest, that no man fall after the same example of disobedience. For the word of God is living, and active, and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing even to the dividing of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and quick to discern the thoughts and intents of the heart. (Hebrews 4:1-12. -ASV.)(Romans 10:4.)
The only true God is, who is, the only self evident truth not contingent on any thing else."[There is] no wisdom nor understanding nor counsel against the LORD." -- Proverbs 21:30.
The importance of the first commandment is the identity of God. The LORD, the Hebrew name meaning the “Self Existent.” And the principle and primary foundational self evident truth is “being is” And Being is the only self existent “thing” which is not contingent upon anything but itself. And this Being is a Person. And the ancient Hebrews worshiped existence/being itself, rather than created things contingent on being.
God’s Name is now translated as “the LORD” because of a long standing Hebrew tradition of not wanting to break the commandment ” Thou shalt not take the name of the LORD thy God in vain; for the LORD will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain.” So when the readers of the Hebrew text came to God’s Name they would substitute Adoni the Hebrew word of “the Lord.” So we have now the tradition of translating God’s Name as “the LORD.”
Now John writes, “Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.” We who are saved sin not, not that we are sinless, nor that we do not “practice sin.” But because of the grace of God we are not under the Law. (“For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.” —Romans 6:14.)
And those who are not saved, “hath not seen him, neither known him.” (see 1 John 5:12. Romans 8:9. 2 Corinthians 13:5.)
In this Jesus warned, “If a man abide not in me, he is cast forth as a branch, and is withered; and men gather them, and cast [them] into the fire, and they are burned.” (John 15:6.)
It is my understanding everyone for whom Christ died are in the vine, where Jesus said, ” I am the true vine, …” (John 15:1.) So unless one overcomes this world by faith in Him (1 John 5:4, 5) one’s name will not be secure in the book of life (Revelation 3:5. Revelation 21:7, 8.).
John wrote, “Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.” (1 John 3:4.) And the Apostle Paul explained, ” Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, [there is] no transgression.” (Romans 4:15.) So our standing is Christ is not under the Law.
But even so we need to understand our need to go to Christ as our intercessor, “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us [our] sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for [the sins of] the whole world. And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments… .” (1 John 1:8-10. 1 John 2:1-3.)
And going to Christ God does something we need, and cannot do our selves for daily victory in Christian living, ” … and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.”
Now as to, “… And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments… .” this is NOT speaking of the 10 Commandments. But the two new commandments, “And this is his commandment, That we should believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, as he gave us commandment.” (1 John 3:23.)(John 3:36. John 12:50. John 13:34, 35, “A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love one another; as I have loved you, that ye also love one another. By this shall all [men] know that ye are my disciples, if ye have love one to another.”)
There is much more that can be said on all of this. It think this should be enough said by me.
The only true God is, who is, the only self evident truth not contingent on any thing else."[There is] no wisdom nor understanding nor counsel against the LORD." -- Proverbs 21:30.
So, do you believe the other 603 commands in the Law of Moses are still in effect? If not, why not?
-------
Greg Long, Ed.D. (SBTS)
Pastor of Adult Ministries
Grace Church, Des Moines, IA
Adjunct Instructor
School of Divinity
Liberty University
[Paul S] Wow, in this thread it seems more heat than light is being generated.I think that could be due in part to some misunderstandings of other’s positions, and trying to figure out the other person’s position may cause a little friction/heat.
Now, because of this, my comments may not be of any help. But, here is my understanding of this issue. Anyone’s disagreement with me on this of little personal importance to me.That’s good. Then you won’t consider my attempts to understand your position as something that just generates heat rather than light.
What do you mean by “in force.” If believers are effectively exempt from the curse of the law, then doesn’t that exempt us in some way from the “force” of the law? By “in force,” do you mean only that the principles of right and wrong contained in the 10 commandment should still be considered as principles of right and wrong? Would that be the same as having some kind of “force”? The way I see Greg’s and Larry’s and James’ position is that certain principles of right and wrong have been in effect since creation, and those principles are in effect whether they are told by Adam to his children or told by the patriarchs to their families or written by God in stone to the children of Israel or spoken by Christ to the disciples. Yet what should we as believers today consider as authoritative? Do we look JUST at the words written by God to the children of Israel or do we look at the whole Bible to see what is in effect for today? I think that last question is where a lot of the misunderstanding has arisen in the thread. I think that everyone who has posted, even the ones who say the 10 Commandments are still in effect, are trying to look at the whole Bible. That is why you presented your understanding of Christ being our Sabbath rest. You got that from the New Testament. Christ is the fulfillment of the Sabbath, and believers therefore are at liberty to decide whether to observe it or not today. Of course, couldn’t we apply the whole Mosaic law in that same manner? Christ is the fulfillment of the whole Mosaic law, so when we consider our own liberty to obey or not, we look at principles other than the Mosaic law to determine if an action is right or wrong for us as believers. That which is “in force” for us would thus NOT be the Mosaic law, but would be the moral principles of right and wrong from Creation and from the lips of Christ and the pens of the New Testament writers. Since we also see those principles written down in the 10 Caommandements, would it be fair to say that those principles are what is “in effect” rather than the “Mosaic Law” still being in effect?
First, all the 10 Commandments are still in force. Second, believers in the finished work of Christ are effectively exempt from the curse of the Law (Deuteronomy 26:27. Galatians 2:21. Galatians 3:10. Galatians 5:4. 1 John 3:4. James 2:10.)
By the way, you did have me a little confused when you said, “The Sabbath observance is still in effect as God commanded it to the people of Israel.” Do you believe that nonChristians today are bound by the command of the Sabbath observance, or are just today’s Jews bound by it, or am I misunderstanding what you tried to say?
[Greg Long] John S.,Well, I’m not John S. Let me state it this way, yes, it is my understanding while Old Covenant has been actually replaced and fulfilled in the New Covenant, one who observes the Old would have to accept Christ of the gospel of the New to not be under the Law (all 613 laws) of the Old. (see Deuteronomy 27:26)[I transposed the numbers in my post]
So, do you believe the other 603 commands in the Law of Moses are still in effect? If not, why not?
Paul S.
The only true God is, who is, the only self evident truth not contingent on any thing else."[There is] no wisdom nor understanding nor counsel against the LORD." -- Proverbs 21:30.
Discussion