A dangerous distortion of a confusing passage

If the issue is a miscarriage, then why does verse 28 promise her that she shall conceive if she is innocent? Now the curse here could be that if a woman cuckolded her husband, she would end up losing the child she had conceived out of wedlock, but verse 28 makes clear that the overall pattern here is not a single miscarriage, but would rather be lifelong sterility. “She shall be a curse”—and as the husband of a woman going through menopause right now, I know that one of the side effects of that stage of life is that the belly swells somewhat—and then recedes as menopause completes.

So I think the better explanation here is not a single miscarriage, and is definitely not an induced abortion at the hands of men, but is rather premature menopause. I would dare say that the NIV here is pushing their TNIV agenda, which was quietly repeated with the release of the 2011 NIV, which follows the TNIV/New Gelded Version more than it does the 1984 NIV.