The Covenant in Classical Covenant Theology (Part 1)
Image
I think it is fair to say that the whole impetus for the covenants of redemption, works and grace in the Reformed Confessions stems from the assumption that the Old Testament must be read through the lens of the extra light of the New. If that assumption is flawed, as I believe it certainly is, then the whole project is in serious trouble.
The release of the Westminster Confession of 1647, although it was preceded by over a century of formative thinking about the covenant, stands out as the principal document of what is known as Covenant Theology.1 Covenant is employed as a fillip to understand and arrange the “doctrines of grace,” and is central to the Confession’s portrayal of redemption.2 This means that the concept takes on a deliberate soteriological hue. The WCF treats its concept of covenant as principally a gracious relationship; a condescension. And there is no doubt that in this it is correct. The Westminster Divines did not lay stress on a pre-creational ‘covenant of redemption’, although their anticipatory language of salvation for the elect in the ‘covenant of grace’ is in tune with it,3 and it is there in WCF 7:3.
Biblical Covenantalism is centered around the twin concepts of God’s words and God’s covenants. To repeat what has already been stated, the present work calls attention to the relationship between God’s words (therefore thoughts) and His actions, and relates them to the covenant commitments which God makes in the Bible. The motif of God’s words = God’s actions (the GWGA motif) segues into the covenants which He has made in that these covenants are an amplification of God’s promissory words to those to whom He commits.
Whatever else covenants are, they function as reinforcements of speech. Thus, when a man marries a woman he does not only say words of promise to her on their wedding day, he enters into a committed relationship of promise with his bride. The presence of a covenant amplifies and underlines the words of promise and binds them together. It is the same with the covenant God. This “binding of God” in covenantal obligation has to be carefully studied and traced out in Scripture. It is not, please note, a theological “binding” first. That is, we are not to deduce that God has covenanted with X because we have arrived at certain theological convictions. Rather, the only way we know that and how and with whom God has entered into covenant is through the clear testimony of God Himself.
To set out this difference more plainly, let us think of the “covenant of grace” of covenant theology. In Reformed theology this covenant of grace has specific content.
The “Covenant of Grace,” which is often simply called “the covenant” by CT’s, wields tremendous, we might say decisive hermeneutical power over CT’s biblical interpretation. But before one gets to use such a potent hermeneutical and theological device, one needs to prove that it is actually Scriptural.
As Herman Witsius defines it,
The Covenant of grace is a compact or agreement between God and the elect sinner; God on his part declaring his free good-will concerning eternal salvation, and everything relative thereto, freely to be given to those in covenant by, and for the mediator Christ; and man on his part consenting to that good-will by a sincere faith.4
Witsius goes on to make it clear that the covenant insures that there is only one people of God, the Church, in both Testaments. This means, for one thing, that whenever one comes across any passage which seems to point to a separation of, say, OT Israel from the NT Church, this must not be allowed to stand, since the “covenant of grace” will not permit it to stand. Therefore, CT’s must first demonstrate if it is possible to establish a “Covenant of Grace” from the text of Scripture rather than from human reason, and then they must show that this covenant is the very same covenant as the Noahic, Abrahamic, Davidic, and New Covenants, which are very clearly found within the Bible.
So what is the exegetical basis for the Covenant of Grace? Well, don’t hold your breath! Even dyed-in-the-wool Covenant theologians like O. Palmer Robertson admit that there is slender exegetical apparatus from which to derive it (he thinks the “covenant of works” fairs better, expending much effort on making Hosea 6:7 refer to a pre-Fall covenant). In reality I would say there is no exegetical justification at all!
Reformed theologian Robert Reymond, who boldly claims that “The church of Jesus Christ is the present-day expression of the one people of God whose roots go back to Abraham,”5 does no better in coming up with actual biblical texts which support this extra-biblical covenant. He, like all CT’s, insists the issue be settled by the Scriptures,6 but he begs leave to spiritualize the texts whenever it suits.7 Reymond also insists that the OT be interpreted via (his interpretation of) the NT. In having things this way he can still maintain that the land promises “were never primary and central to the covenant intention.”8 Quite how one can read Genesis 12-17 and come away believing that the land was not a primary issue escapes me.
Following the reasoning of CT’s as they dive in and out of selective passages, often avoiding the specific referents within the context (e.g. land, Canaan, Jerusalem, mountains of Israel, Judah, etc.), can be a mind-numbing experience. One needs to try to keep in mind what they are attempting to prove: that God has made one covenant with the elect of both Testaments to guarantee that there will be one people of God, inheriting heavenly promises in Christ. For example, Robertson says,
The covenants of God are one. The recurring summation of the essence of the covenanttestifies to this fact… All the dealings of God with man since the fall must be seen as possessing a basic unity…Diversity indeed exists in the various administrations of God’s covenants. This diversity enriches the wonder of God’s plan for his people. But the diversity ultimately merges inti a single purpose overarching the ages…The various administrations of the covenant of redemption [i.e. grace] relate organically to one another…9
That may sound okay, but what one has to realize is that this means that anything found in the biblical covenants which does not fit this preconceived picture (e.g. a physical land for the people of Israel, a literal throne of David in Jerusalem), is demoted to an ancillary and temporal place or is transformed into a “type” or “shadow” of a spiritual reality which comports with the requirements of “the covenant.”
Notes
1 See Peter Golding, Covenant Theology, 15. This is an excellent historical account.
2 Ibid., 60. Although the ‘covenant of works’ is not redemptive because it deals with man in his innocence, it nevertheless puts forth “life” as something to be achieved or forfeited dependent upon man’s observance of God’s “law.” See WCF 7:2 & 19:1
3 See especially the Westminster Longer Catechism 31.
4 Herman Witsius, The Economy of the Covenants Between God and Man, 1.165 Bk. 2. Ch.1.5.
5 Robert L. Reymond, A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith, 525f.
6 Ibid. 528
7 Ibid. 511 n.16
8 Ibid. 513 n.19
9 O. Palmer Robertson, The Christ of the Covenants, 52, 55, 61, 63 (my emphasis).
Paul Henebury Bio
Paul Martin Henebury is a native of Manchester, England and a graduate of London Theological Seminary and Tyndale Theological Seminary (MDiv, PhD). He has been a Church-planter, pastor and a professor of Systematic Theology and Apologetics. He was also editor of the Conservative Theological Journal (suggesting its new name, Journal of Dispensational Theology, prior to leaving that post). He is now the President of Telos School of Theology.
- 33 views
Good article. I remember reading Reymond’s eschatology for Seminary. His summary of OT eschatology was about two pages, then he spent the rest of his time in the NT. The covenant of grace was definitive for him.
Tyler is a pastor in Olympia, WA and works in State government.
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
Paul,
Thanks for this series. Sorry if this long. Let me give you a sense of my thoughts as I begin this series.
I come into this thinking that the difference is like this: Ask a series of T-F Bible questions about Israel and the NT Church, and you have to answer either “Israel and the church are the Same on that,” or “Different.”
- The fall of Adam makes men sinful.
- Man is depraved and unable to seek God or do good without His grace.
- Salvation depends on God’s grace - not our good works.
- It is good for believers to do good works for the glory of God.
- The curse was placed on all men, but not every possible bad thing happens to every man.
- The grace of God is extended to all men, but not every expression of grace is extended to every man (salvation, children, rain, sunshine)
- The gracious gift of a specific land is part of God’s promise to the members of the covenant.
- We ought to apply signs of the covenant.
- We ought to apply the sign to the same sort of people (including infant family members) as Israel did.
- etc.
If you answer “Israel and the church are the Same on that,” a lot, then you are a Covenant Theologian. If you answer “Israel and the church are Different on that,” a lot, then you are a Dispensational Theologian.
But I don’t think that many on either side will say “Same” for everything you could possibly list. Nor “Different.” For me, I would answer:
- Same
- Same
- Same
- Same
- Same
- Same
- Different (not land for NTChurch)
- Same
- Different (signs are for those with faith, not birth into believing families)
- etc.
–-=====–-
Now, your first article…
So what is the exegetical basis for the Covenant of Grace? Well, don’t hold your breath! Even dyed-in-the-wool Covenant theologians like O. Palmer Robertson admit that there is slender exegetical apparatus from which to derive it (he thinks the “covenant of works” fairs better, expending much effort on making Hosea 6:7 refer to a pre-Fall covenant). In reality I would say there is no exegetical justification at all!
Reformed theologian Robert Reymond, who boldly claims that “The church of Jesus Christ is the present-day expression of the one people of God whose roots go back to Abraham,”5 does no better in coming up with actual biblical texts which support this extra-biblical covenant. He, like all CT’s, insists the issue be settled by the Scriptures,6 but he begs leave to spiritualize the texts whenever it suits.7 Reymond also insists that the OT be interpreted via (his interpretation of) the NT. In having things this way he can still maintain that the land promises “were never primary and central to the covenant intention.”8 Quite how one can read Genesis 12-17 and come away believing that the land was not a primary issue escapes me.
I wonder if you’re doing justice to the CT and the basis of his claim that we should say “Same” a lot.
For example, Robertson says,
The covenants of God are one. The recurring summation of the essence of the covenanttestifies to this fact… All the dealings of God with man since the fall must be seen as possessing a basic unity…Diversity indeed exists in the various administrations of God’s covenants. This diversity enriches the wonder of God’s plan for his people. But the diversity ultimately merges inti a single purpose overarching the ages…The various administrations of the covenant of redemption [i.e. grace] relate organically to one another…
When I read this, I wonder how much of the debate is semantics. “The covenants of God are one.” But they’re plural. We can list them. And we can identify each of them according to their differences. “Diversity indeed exists in the various administrations of God’s covenants” - isn’t that a way of saying that sometimes we’ll say “Things are Different for a man at x or y time.”
?? “Adminiatration, Dispensation” - “Potayto, Patahto” ??
When a person approaches a particular question on the list I made, I believe that he should answer it according to scripture, that it might be “same” or “different,” and that to think that I have to answer “Different” because I’m DT or “Same” because I’m CT is a mistake.
Dan,
Here is a quick attempt to answer your points.
Beginning with the quotation of Robertson and the covenant/covenants difference, I would say that the former overwhelms the latter. That is, the singular covenant (i.e. of grace) is the main covenant which is then administered by means of these other covenants. A big problem here is that the cov. of grace has no exegetical right to this prominence. Moreover, once it has been given it, the other covenants (which DO have exegetical rights to be considered independently of the cov. of grace) are then dealt with under the alien category forced upon them by “the covenant”. Thus, they cannot be handled as individual covenants with particular oaths which are given attention to, but as mere expressions of the one covenant. This deductive procedure, where an a priori identification of covenant of grace + covenants skews progressive revelation and violates a contextual interpretation of the covenantal texts by sorting each one through the apparatus of the cov. of grace.
I hope that’s clear enough. I may have been more obtuse than I wanted to be, but I’m rushing a bit.
As to your opening line of questions, I have no real problem with them as questions, but I fear that they themselves determine your outcome. What I mean is that in putting these questions to yourself you are circumscribing the outcome, and in putting them first you are in danger of making them your deductive grid which the exegesis of each covenant must bear in mind. In my view no question ought to be asked prior to exegesis which might prelimit what one comes away with.
With CT’s like Robertson and Goldsworthy, NT categories are deliberately read into the OT as hermeneutical guides and restrictions. Your questions deal with outcomes, but it is method which mostly concerns me. Typology, spiritualization, theological deduction, premature introduction of the analogy of faith, Testamental prioritization and the like. What I have tried to avoid is a conclusion such as the one with which you end your comment. Viz. I do not answer because I am DT.
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
As to your opening line of questions, I have no real problem with them as questions, but I fear that they themselves determine your outcome. What I mean is that in putting these questions to yourself you are circumscribing the outcome, and in putting them first you are in danger of making them your deductive grid which the exegesis of each covenant must bear in mind. In my view no question ought to be asked prior to exegesis which might prelimit what one comes away with.
Well, I think that the prelimits come when someone says, “As I study, I’m saying ‘Same’ a lot. I think we should just say ‘Same’ every time.” (or ‘Different’)
I do not disagree. But I would not approach the matter that way for reasons I give briefly above. Another issue comes with the respective weight of each question and answer. How determinative is it in producing the ‘Same’ or ‘Different’ conclusion?
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
A quick somewhat unrelated question for Paul or anyone else. The method that you cited in Robertson is exactly what drove me from a CT leaning as I read through his book. That was about fifteen years ago and I have since read a fair amount of CT stuff. While not at all monolithic, there is a lot of agreement there on the covenants. About a year ago, on your recommendation, I read quote “Sealed With an Oath” which took a slightly different approach to the covenants. To my way of thinking it would be closer to proper exegesis.
My question is this: Are there any newer covenant theologians that reject what some call the speculative covenants? In particular are there some that reject the covenant of works? I am reading “Salvation Accomplished by the Son” and it seems like Peterson may lean that way. Thanks!
Josh,
Classical Covenant theology accepts the three theological covenants of redemption, works and grace. This can be seen from the Reformed Confessions and from reading men like Ball, Turretin, Owen etc. John Murray did not like the idea of a covenant of works and questions it in his article ‘The Adamic Administration’ in Volume 2 of his Works. Norman Shepherd rejected the cov. of works outright. However, he is not followed by most CT’s. Graeme Goldsworthy focuses on the kingdom rather then the theological covenants, but his approach is fully in keeping with CT.
Recent writers who have critiqued these covenants are from the New Covenant Theology school. They see a Creation Covenant in early Genesis, but no covenants of redemption or works. The cov. of grace becomes the new covenant. however, the resultant scheme looks very like CT in many respects.
Williamson’s book is very good because in it he highlights the oaths in the covenants, which are too often neglected. Unfortunately he does see two Abrahamic covenants and he is supercessionist.
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
Thanks. I was aware of the New Covenant rejection of the covenant of works but it sounds like they are really the only covenant guys that are rejecting it.
Discussion