Answering the 95 Theses Against Dispensationalism, Part 5
Republished with permission from Dr. Reluctant. In this series, Dr. Henebury responds to a collection of criticisms of dispensationalism entitled “95 Theses against Dispensationalism” written by a group called “The Nicene Council.” Read Part 1, Part 2, Part 3, Part 4.
Thesis 24
Despite the dispensationalists’ partial defense of their so-called literalism in pointing out that “the prevailing method of interpretation among the Jews at the time of Christ was certainly this same method” (J. D. Pentecost), they overlook the problem that this led those Jews to misunderstand Christ and to reject him as their Messiah because he did not come as the king which their method of interpretation predicted.
Response: It is not advisable to refer to dispensational interpretation as “literalism”—so-called or otherwise, since this leads to misunderstandings and misrepresentations (see below). It is far better to treat the Bible the same way one would treat any other book. It seems preposterous to us to scout around for an alternative hermeneutics just because the Bible is the Word of God. In fact, it is precisely because the Bible is the Word of God to man that one would expect it not to require some esoteric interpretation unless very good reasons could be given for doing so.
Although some evangelicals would disagree, we think there is great wisdom contained in these words of Peters:
If God has really intended to make known His will to man, it follows that to secure knowledge on our part, He must convey His truth to us in accordance with the well-known rules of language. He must adapt Himself to our mode of communicating thought and ideas. If His words were given to be understood, it follows that He must have employed language to convey the sense intended, agreeably to the laws grammatically expressed, controlling all language; and that, instead of seeking a sense which the words in themselves do not contain, we are primarily to obtain the sense that the words obviously embrace, making due allowance for the existence of figures of speech when indicated by the context, scope or construction of the passage. (George N. H. Peters, The Theocratic Kingdom, 1.47)
That many Jews in the time of Jesus expected Him to fulfill the Word by setting up His literal (not spiritual) messianic kingdom at His first advent was due in part to their not realizing that He must first suffer and become “sin for us” (Isa. 53) before He would come as king (e.g. Matt. 26:64, 27:11 with Dan. 7:13-14) They did not see that there would be a time-gap between the first and second advents (see Mic. 5:2, Isa. 61:1-2, Lk. 1:31-33).
Unless they are heretics, all Christians believe in a time gap between the advents. And they do this, not by employing some allegorizing hermeneutic (which would be suspicious as an apologetic), but rather, by believing what the Bible says. Christ will come again (Lk. 18:8, Jn. 14:1-3, Acts 1:11, Rev. 22:20).
Finally, how strange it was that those who were closest to Him, who heard more of His teaching than anyone else, should ask Him, “Lord, will you at this time restore the kingdom to Israel?” (Acts 1:6). Apparently not only did they expect a literal earthly kingdom in line with OT predictions, but they also appeared not to think the Church was the “New Israel”! And Jesus said nothing to alter their expectation!
Thesis 25
Despite the dispensationalists’ partial defense of their so-called literalism by appealing to the method of interpretation of the first century Jews, such “literalism” led those Jews to misunderstand Christ’s basic teaching by believing that he would rebuild the destroyed temple in three days (John 2:20-21); that converts must enter a second time into his mother’s womb (John 3:4); and that one must receive liquid water from Jesus rather than spiritual water (John 4:10-11), and must actually eat his flesh (John 6:51-52, 66).
Response: Since no dispensationalist has ever made these same mistakes in interpretation, this objection is pointless. This is what happens when one goes fishing for red herrings rather than paying attention to how the (older) hermeneutics manuals (Terry, Ramm) define grammatical-historical hermeneutics. In this case, “literal” interpretation is morphed into “literalistic” interpretation. All objectors to dispensational interpretation get a couple of pages worth of material from this mischaracterization.
Thesis 26
Despite the dispensationalists’ interpretive methodology arguing that we must interpret the Old Testament on its own merit without reference to the New Testament, so that we must “interpret ‘the New Testament in the light of the Old’” (Alan Johnson), the unified, organic nature of Scripture and its typological, unfolding character require that we consult the New Testament as the divinely-ordained interpreter of the Old Testament, noting that all the prophecies are “yea and amen in Christ” (2 Cor 1:20); that “the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy” (Rev 19:10); and, in fact, that many Old Testament passages were written “for our instruction, upon whom the ends of the ages have come” (1 Cor 10:11) and were a “mystery which has been kept secret for long ages past” (Col. 1:26; Rev 10:7).
Response: First, Alan Johnson is not a dispensationalist. But since Scripture is a unified and organic whole, certainly we must, in some sense, “interpret the New Testament in light of the Old.” Every Bible interpreter must do that. What responsible Bible student would deny it? Where would our biblical worldview be if we did not allow Genesis 1-4 to guide us as New Testament believers?
The question is, “To what extent can the New Testament be used to interpret the Old?” The passages cited do not answer this question for us. Second Corinthians 1:20 speaks to the Divine provenance of the Gospel preached by Paul and his companions. The verse does not say “prophecies” but “promises.” In context the promises are those of the Gospel. However, because Christ is the Fulcrum of the outworking of God’s decrees it would not be amiss to relate every promise to Him. But this hardly gives Christians license to give the OT promises a complete makeover so that they look nothing like the original statements. Likewise 1 Corinthians 10:11 tells us that the OT stories “were written for our instruction.” The context is Divine recompense upon evil works (v.6). To enlist the passage to teach the legitimacy of an ill-advised mixture of allegorical/typological/literal interpretation of the OT is to be guilty of “textual kidnapping.”
The Colossians passage will be dealt with in due time. It proves nothing as it stands in the sentence. It has simply been spliced and connected to a strand from the 1 Corinthians passage without regard for its original usage. We are unclear as to what function Rev. 10:7 is supposed to play in establishing this thesis.
But the cat is being let out of the bag by this thesis. The Nicene Council require the OT to be exposed to the acid of their “typological” hermeneutic whenever it suits. This makes the OT a wax nose that can be made to look any way the objectors wish it to look. Responsible dispensationalists refuse to operate this way. We affirm the integrity of both Testaments as equally worthy of the same grammatical-historical hermeneutical consideration. We affirm that to use the NT – especially an artificial set of theological covenants not found in the NT – as a lens through which to re-interpret the OT is not at all to use it “as a divinely-ordained interpreter of the Old Testament” but to demean the OT so as to make room for the deductions of systems such as Covenant theology.
Of course, the NT provides much more light on many precious truths. But both Testaments can be interpreted together satisfactorily without the adoption of such a fabricated prioritization of one Testament above the other.
Paul Henebury Bio
Paul Martin Henebury is a native of Manchester, England and a graduate of London Theological Seminary and Tyndale Theological Seminary (MDiv, PhD). He has been a Church-planter, pastor and a professor of Systematic Theology and Apologetics. He was also editor of the Conservative Theological Journal (suggesting its new name, Journal of Dispensational Theology, prior to leaving that post). He is now the President of Telos School of Theology.
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Is there an article out there describing the various views on how the church “fits” into the New Cov’t? Jack’s perspective (if I read you right, Jack) is that it doesn’t. Yours, Dr. Reluctance (and mine, too) is that it does. I’m guessing Aaron, you do too.
But it seems that the catching point for us who do see the NC having a relationship with the church is defining that relationship (except Jack - score one for you!).
After all we have to wrestle with these points. Even Heb. 8:8 mentions not the church, but Israel and Judah. But I think Paul’s points, especially #5, must be a little challenging at least for you, Jack. And I didn’t really get an answer to my question on Heb. 8:6 (if you did, forgive my thickheadedness).
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
Jack: We seem to be sort of talking past eachother or something. When I say that God extends covenant on His own terms and people are given a chance to enter into it (what Paul referred to as bilateral), certainly the terms of the covenant are not altered at all. However, what God does is altered because the covenant is rejected.
In Israel’s case, the passage you quoted clearly contains the word “if.” What this means is that if they do not choose to meet the conditions (i.e., they reject the covenant) the promised blessings do not follow.
Some covenants have “ifs” and some don’t. The ones that do, present people with a choice as to how they will respond to the covenant. The ones that do not are still covenants because God has promised something. It’s just not conditioned on anybody’s response.
But again, I can’t see how it matters a whole lot—except that there is no way to do justice to the OT texts involved if we deny that these are covenants. That’s never a trivial thing.
Paul, I like your take on New Covenant. It may be that I haven’t read enough, but I don’t really see the difficulty either. I’m guessing you probably have read enough so I feel validated. :)
Views expressed are always my own and not my employer's, my church's, my family's, my neighbors', or my pets'. The house plants have authorized me to speak for them, however, and they always agree with me.
You ask:
If Paul’s words at 1 Corinthians 11:25 are teaching that Christians partake in the New Diatheke promised to the nation of Israel then why does he place that diatheke in the future here?As I read it, Paul is saying that the Lord’s Table bears a direct relation to the institution of the New Covenant with those who were to become the foundations of the Church. Hence, as these disciples were incorporated into the Body of Christ and the New Covenant (NC) was made with them it is, both exegetically and theologically speaking, easier said than done to declare that the NC was not made by Christ with the Church. The fact that this fact was revealed later to Paul (i.e. Eph. 2:20; 1 Cor. 11:23) does not deflect the force of the conclusion. It must be faced: especially by a person who wishes to read the Bible “literally.”
But your question includes an assumption which I tried to avoid in my post. That is, that the NC (remember, Jeremiah uses “berith”) is promised to Israel only. I say the NC was promised to Israel alone in the OT and that it could not have been otherwise. If there had been mention of the NC being given to the Church in an OT prophet then a major plank of traditional dispensationalism would be washed away.
So I am saying that Jesus Christ initiated the NC for the Church at the Last Supper. Thus, we, through Christ, obtain spiritual (though not necessarily immaterial) blessings (Eph. 1:3, 18, 2:7) by the same means whereby future Israel shall attain to its particular covenant promises (like the ones you listed). Thus, the NC is the means of access into the blessings of God for both the Church and Israel.
It is clear that the conditions which will be in place when the New Diatheke is in force are not conditions that are in place now.Quite right, although you ought to call it the New Covenant if you are citing the OT (unless you are quoting the LXX).
Besides, if the New Diatheke promised to Israel was for the Christian why does the author of Hebrews not apply it to the Christian?Well, the NC promises to Israel are not the NC promises to the Church. Why the writer of Hebrews does not deal with this is not known to me. Perhaps because he is writing “to the Hebrews”? There are things in that epistle (e.g. the infamous warning passages) which may perhaps speak to the Remnant (in the Tribulation?). Maybe not, but your point contains an argument from silence. Sometimes Scripture just does not tell us everything we would like it to say. :-)
You write:
It was only later after Paul was converted that a fuller understanding of the significance of the Lord Jesus’ death upon the Cross was understood. Evidently Paul received a special revelation (“I have received of the Lord…”) to give him a fuller understanding of the meaning of the Lord Jesus’ words spoken on the eve of the Cross.Okay, but as I have said, that does not effect the issue, which is “what was the meaning Paul was given about the relation of the Lord’s Supper to the New Covenant?” I think the meaning is clear.
In the upper room the blood of a New Diatheke was set in the context of the kingdom, and that is clearly in reference to Israel’s New Covenant:Well, seeing as we shall also be in the kingdom I don’t see the need for splitting hairs (if you will forgive me putting it that way). You may hold that the Church will not be on earth during the Millennium? I am not there. Really, whether one takes Matt. 26 or Lk. 22 to be referring just to Israel’s NC, or whether the further revelation, which you agree was given to Paul, was nascent in the Lord’s words (which I believe to be true), one cannot skirt around the fact that the men that Jesus made the NC with in the Upper Room became foundational members of the NT Church. And if the men Jesus made the NC with are foundations of His Church, surely the NC is made with the Church as reflected in 1 Cor.11 (I shall not introduce 2 Cor.3:6 here, though some dispensationalist attempts to excise the Church from the passage strike me as excruciating).
“…for this is My blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for forgiveness of sins. But I say to you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it new with you in My Father’s kingdom” (Mt.26:28-29).
Paul specifically ties communion to the Lord’s return at the rapture and not to the kingdom—”you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes.”
This is clear evidence that Paul’s words in regard to the Lord’s supper are not in regard to Israel’s New Diatheke but instead is in regard to the New Diatheke which is in operation today.Not Israel’s NC promises no, but the Church’s. Btw, we ought not speak of the NC in the OT as possessing discrete blessings which are absent from the Abrahamic Covenant, expansively understood to include Land, Kingly, Priestly blessings. There was no way into those blessings without the NC. And it is the same for the Church. The same NC is needed for the Church to enter into its blessings (see e.g. Gal. 3:6-9).
The truths concerning the Body of Christ were not known until Paul was converted. Charles C. Ryrie said: “In the Upper Room that payment is clearly related to the future fulfillment of the new covenant. This is to be expected since those gathered there did not understand that there would even be an intervening church age” [emphasis added] (Ryrie, Dispensationalism [Chicago: Moody Press, 1995] , p.172).Ryrie believes that the Church has no relation to the NC, but the quotation above does not address the issues I raise here. The same may be said with regard to the Ironside quotation. Indeed, both men appear to think that because Jeremiah refers only to the NC being made with Israel, that this somehow debars Christ from making it with the Church. But why not? Paul says He did!
That, at least, is where I’m coming from. Feel free to disagree and respond. I appreciate your thinking even if I don’t find myself in total sympathy with it.
Your brother,
Paul
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
Paul, I have a good reason for seeing a typological relationship. Do you think that the New Diatheke to which Paul refers to here is the same New Diatheke which was promised to the house of Israel?The passage in 2 Cor. 3:6 to which you repair concerns the NC that Christ made with the Church. It does not concern the same NC which He shall make with the house of Israel in the future.
If Paul is referring to the NC promised to Israel then it is clear there is no typology involved. They are the same NC!
From the immediate context we can see that the “ministry” to which Paul made reference is in regard to a “testament” and not to a “covenant”I think your definition of “covenant” is too narrow. It can include the concept of “testament” as even Vos admitted.
In a commentary on 2 Corinthians 4:1 Homer Kent, Jr., writes that “ ‘This ministry’ to which he referred was the ministry of the new covenant (3:6). It was the task of proclaiming and teaching the gospel of Christ, the glorious news that sins have been forgiven through Christ’s death” (Kent, “The Glory of Christian Ministry: An Analysis of 2 Corinthians 2:14 -4:18,” Grace Theological Journal 2.2 [Fall 1981] , p.181).If I am right this ministry pertains to the Church’s relation to the NC as I have tried to set it out. Note, Kent has no problem with the term “New Covenant”
Again, do you believe that the New Diatheke which Paul refers to at 2 Corinthians 3:6 is the same New Diatheke that was promised to the house of Israel?The covenant is the same, but the subjects (i.e. the church in 2 Cor. and Israel in Hebrews) are not.
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
[Jack Hampton] Ted, let me try this again. The Lord Jesus’ work in His role as Mediator was fulfilled at the Cross. Let us look at the following verse:Hi Jack,
This puts the Lord Jesus’ work in regard to being a Mediator in the past.
It was the Lord Jesus’ death on the Cross which restored peace between God and man once for all, and that was by providing a “reconciliation”:
So the Lord Jesus’ work in regard to His role as a Mediator was fulfilled at the Cross.
He is the Mediator of a New Diatheke but He has already done the work in the past that defines that role. He has already done the work associated with His role as Mediator for both the “type” and the “anti-type.”
If I understand your point rightly, it is that the mediatorial work is all done, accomplished at the cross. Therefore, He is no longer the Mediator of the NC.
Am I understanding it?
Given that the church is not in the New Covenant of Luke 22:20, should churches not practice communion?
Was Paul’s gospel different than Jesus’?
I thought I made my position clear, but I guess it was clear only to me :(
Let’s try again:
In my post “Some Thoughts” above (#25) I wrote:
If one is expecting to find that [i.e. the Church’s involvement in the NC] in Jeremiah or Ezekiel then one is not a dispensationalist. Those prophets did not envisage “the Body of Christ” so they did not write about the relationship of the New covenant to the Church.And in the quotation which you cite above I specifically say that the NC made with the Church is
Does this necessitate two separate new covenants? No indeed! It means only that the same new covenant was given to the Church as shall be given to Israel. From my simplistic perspective I just don’t see a real problem there.
the same NC which He shall make with the house of Israel in the future.Why then are you concluding that I am speaking about two NC’s?
My surprise increases with your quotation from Chafer which includes his dichotomy of Heavenly versus earthly peoples. But I have already stated:
You may hold that the Church will not be on earth during the Millennium? I am not there.Hence, I do not agree with Chafer, either on this matter, nor indeed on his language about “a covenant “styled” after another covenant.”
Then you write:
But then later you say that the New Diatheke of 2 Corinthians and the New Diatheke spoken of in Hebrews are the same but the subjects are not.But when I wrote
The covenant is the same, but the subjects (i.e. the church in 2 Cor. and Israel in Hebrews) are not., it was a follow up on my answer to your inquiry about why Hebrews does not apply the NC explicitly to “Christians” I simply plead the Fifth:
Well, the NC promises to Israel are not the NC promises to the Church. Why the writer of Hebrews does not deal with this is not known to me.Please go back and revisit the context of this answer. For the record I believe the truths the writer is dealing with are for Christians. The quotation of Jer. 31 and the inclusion of the line “to Israel and Judah” MAY mean that the writer’s particular focus is upon those parties. If so, the subjects are Israel. But the eternal truths also pertain to the whole Church as (I believe) the NC was also made with the Church so we could have access to new life and our promises in Christ.
Next, you ask:
Do you agree that the “ministry of the New Testament” to which Paul makes reference is referring to a ministry to preach the gospel of Christ—therefore His reference to “the new testament” is to the gospel of Christ?Yes to the first part and no to the second. Yes in that Paul is referring to his ministry of preaching and teaching the Gospel. This is because the Gospel of Jesus Christ includes His inauguration of the New Covenant. Indeed, if Christ had not removed the old and replaced it with the new it would not be possible to preach the Gospel. But the Gospel is not a synonym for the New Covenant. The Gospel, as I said, includes the NC in its message and depends upon it for its validity. So when you aver
therefore His reference to “the new testament” is to the gospel of Christ?my reply is, “No, it is a reference to the fact that by the Gospel the NC is ministered to sinners.” As P. E. Hughes says:
“The Christian ministry is essentially the ministry of the new covenant. This covenant, promised in the Old Testament, is realized in the gospel of Jesus Christ, the effect of which is the writing of God’s law in the hearts of His people.” - Paul’s Second Epistle to the Corinthians , New London Commentary, (1962), 93-94. (I would not subscribe to the direction of replacement theology in which he takes this truth of course).
Because of the NC work of Christ, Paul has what he calls further on, “the ministry of reconciliation” (2 Cor. 5:18).
Finally,
If the “covenant” is the same and Paul’s reference to a diatheke is to the “gospel” then we must believe that the New Diatheke promised to the nation of Israel is that same gospel.Paul is dealing with the effect of the NC for those elect in Christ (the NT Church). The Gospel he preaches is for them . He is not there dealing with future Israel who will enter into the benefits of the NC accruing to them after the removal of the Church - or so I believe. This all means that even though I say that the self-same NC has been made with the Church as shall be made with Israel, the covenant provides the basis for salvation and blessing in accordance with what God has purposed for the Church and Israel respectively. As far as the Church is concerned, this is why Paul cites the appropriate passage from Genesis 12:3 in Galatians 3:6-9.
That is the only possible conclusion that I can see since you say that they are the same.
If I may, since you have previously appealed to him as an authority, let me quote Geerhardus Vos on diatheke in 2 Corinthians 3:
“With Paul in ii Corinthians 3 and Galatians 4 the motive for the introduction of the idea is historico-comparative. In neither context is there anything to suggest a “testament.”” - Redemptive History and Biblical Interpretation , 407.
God bless,
Paul
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
I’m now the one who is running into confusion. I don’t have much time, but a few things should be said:
1. I really do not think you have proved what you claim to have proved (i.e. that the NC in 2 Cor. 3 is an exact synonym for the Gospel). You have just stated the obvious fact that the NC includes some of the same elements as the Gospel. since the Gospel rests upon the NC this is not surprising. This partly explains Paul’s usage of NC language in 2 Cor. 3.
2. In answer to a question from Ted you said you believed that Christ had mediated the NC (although He continues to mediate it today?). This is a little obscure due to your insistence upon speaking of “a new diatheke” which may or may not in fact be the NC). Some clarification would help me here.
3. There are several reasons for not equating the Gospel with the New Covenant as exactly the same things:
a). The death of Christ, through “the blood of the covenant” did not inaugurate nor ratify the Gospel (as outlined in 1 Cor. 15:1-4), like it did the NC. The ratification of the NC as a covenant did not require Christ’s Resurrection, only His blood.
b). We could not speak of Christ initiating the Gospel at the Last Supper, but we can speak of Him initiating the NC.
c). The Risen Christ is needed for the Gospel to be preachable (cf. Rom. 4:25; 10:9), but the NC requires only “the death of the testator” (admitting the translation for the sake of argument).
d). Christ cannot be called the Mediator of the Gospel in the same way as He is “the Mediator of the New Covenant.” The Gospel is not a covenant but requires one (the NC) for the benefits it announces.
e). The NC was inaugurated before it could be mediated by the Risen Christ. But, as I have said, the Gospel required a Risen Christ before it could be preached.
Thus, when Paul speaks of ministering the NC in 2 Cor. 3 he means that by the preaching of the Gospel the benefits contained within the inaugurated NC are declared to sinners.
4. You write:
I have provided an abundance of evidence that demonstrates that the words “new testament” at 2 Corinthians 3:6 are referring to the “gospel of Christ.”
I trow not :)
Therefore when Paul refers to the “ministry of the new testament” the words “new testament” must refer to the gospel. Either those words are in reference to the “gospel” or they are in regard to the “New Covenant” of Jeremiah 3131. They cannot be referring to both.
Yer got me! You appear to be saying that the NC in 2 Cor. 3 cannot be the NC referred to by Jeremiah It must instead be the Gospel? Does this mean you think the NC in Jeremiah and Ezekiel, which all writers say is alluded to by Paul in 2 Cor. 3 (E.g. Comm. on the NT Use of the OT ,754), and which is clearly referred to by the author of Hebrews, is actually not that covenant? That is, because you believe it is the Gospel it cannot be the NC of Jer. 31?
I’m perplexed here brother! If it is not the NC per Jer. 31 just what is it?
You say, “Either the life of which Paul makes reference comes from the gospel or it comes from a New Covenant. I have provided ample evidence that it comes from the gospel. Please provide any evidence that you have which demonstrates that the life spoken of does not come from the gospel that comes in the power of the Holy Spirit. That is the only way that I can see which will allow you to defend your view. After all, that life comes only as a result of the “gospel” or as a result of the “New Covenant” of Jeremiah 31:31. It cannot come as a result of both.”
I say the life we have comes by the Gospel via the NC upon which it rests. You are saying something very different.
Must dash!
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
If each person, then doesn’t it depend on each person to receive it?
And since it depends on each person to receive it, isn’t that each person doing their part in a covenant.
Jesus has done His part - die and resurrect. Thus He is, as you seem to say, the mediator who is all done with His mediatorial work. Nothing is left for him to do there.
Now we do our part of the covenant - believe, right?
[Ted] And since it depends on each person to receive it, isn’t that each person doing their part in a covenant.Bingo. We can call it a nergopharp but it’s still a covenant.
Views expressed are always my own and not my employer's, my church's, my family's, my neighbors', or my pets'. The house plants have authorized me to speak for them, however, and they always agree with me.
[Jack Hampton] It is not what one does that brings salvation but instead what one doesn’t do.Sorry Jack, but you cannot have it both ways. No matter how you say it, you still have someone participating in the process. What you describe is not a passive, unaware beneficiary, but an involved, participatory party - whether you describe it as doing something to receive or choosing not to do something to receive.
Why is it that my voice always seems to be loudest when I am saying the dumbest things?
How can one be saved by one does not do, and have a monergistic regeneration? If what one does not do is not resist the Holy Spirit, is that still something the person is doing - they are not resisting the Holy Spirit?
If someone does not close their heart to the truth, is that still not what that person is doing?
Or are you saying it is God doing that (not resisting the HS, not closing their heart) for that person?
It is what one does not do that saves the sinner.In other words, when one sins less, they get saved?
I understand what you are saying and know of a friend of mine that describes his salvation in the passive terms you described. He told me of when he was a teen and a man sitting down with him and explaining the gospel and on the way home, him realizing that he was saved. It did not enter his mind to resist, rather that he fully yielded to the enlightenment provided by the Spirit of God.
However, this is his experience and it certainly was not mine. And of course experiences are not that upon which we based our theology as we all know but I wanted to relate to you that I understand from a personal account of someone I know, very well, a description of their coming to a saving knowledge of Christ in the manner you are describing.
And you may have a delicate but worthy consideration regarding the nuanced positions that “choosing” and “believing” might require and where and how our wills are involved. But I have a very exegetical question for you if one was to prescribe this view of the process of our believing on Christ.
In Acts 16:31 the imperative command is given, “…believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved…”. If believing were the passive context you are asserting, how do you reconcile this with the word pisteuson being in the active voice as opposed to the passive voice?
For comparison allow me to reference Ephesians 5:18 where we are commanded, “…be ye filled with the Spirit;”. Here the passive voice is used because it is clear we do not control or will the Spirit, rather we acquiesce to his control. And with the passive voice as we know, the subject receives the action of the verb. But even here, one must will to acquiesce to the control or influence of the Spirit.
The comparison is not with the two contexts but with the use of the active and passive voices. If our believing was passive, why is it not communicated this way with the passive voice in Acts?
I know you have more than one person to read and respond to and there is no reason why I should take precedence. Please feel free to reply or not to this comment. I put it out there only as an observation.
You write above (#42):
In verse 15 the words “new testament” has a direct reference to “death,” and further comments on that same death continues into verses 16 and 17. So here the words “new teastament” are defined as being a “Last Will and Testament.”It seems to me that your whole case depends upon the supposition that diatheke must mean “last will and testament” in Hebrews 9:15-17. You then extrapolate from this text and apply this one meaning to the rest of the uses of diatheke in the New Testament. There are several reasons for believing this to be a faux pas:
Geerhardus Vos wrote, “In the New Testament the diatheke as a ‘last will’ is once brought into connection with the sacrifice of Christ…” (Geerhardus Vos, “Hebrews, the Epistle of the Diatheke,” The Princeton Thelogical Review, Vol. 13, No.4, 1915, 601).
The author of the book of Hebrews would not place a different meaning on the word diatheke in verse 16 than he placed on it at verse 15 as that would certainly impair the logical coherence of his whole argument. Scott Murray states that James Swetnam “has argued cogently for taking all four instances as ‘testament.’ To begin with, Swetnam presumed that the author of Hebrews had sufficient rhetorical facility that he would have avoided what has been termed an ‘awkward construction.’ The awkward construction would be where the first and last uses of διαθήκη taken as ‘covenant’ and the second and third as ‘testament.’ Attributing to the author of the letter to the Hebrews this kind of clumsiness is hardly credible” ( Scott R. Murray, “The Concept of διαθήκη in the Letter to the Hebrews,” Concordia Theological Quarterly 66:1 [Jan. 2002] , 56. Murray cites Swetnam, “A Suggested Interpretation of Hebrews 9, 15-18,” The Catholic Biblical Quarterly 27 [October 1965] , 373-390).
1. I have previously cited Geerhardus Vos’s opinion on whether 2 Cor. 3 could be construed as a testament.
“With Paul in ii Corinthians 3 and Galatians 4 the motive for the introduction of the idea is historico-comparative. In neither context is there anything to suggest a “testament.’” - Redemptive History and Biblical Interpretation , 407.Other corroborations of this could be produced, but it should be unnecessary.
The clear allusions to the New Covenant (berith - which is not a testament) from Jeremiah and Ezekiel in 2 Corinthians 3 show that he is definitely referring to that covenant. The context is decisive, ergo, one cannot make the sweeping identification of diatheke as “last will and testament” wherever it occurs in the NT. So you are rowing upstream.
2. The meaning of diatheke in Heb. 9:15 is “covenant.” This is clear because the writer is referencing the Mosaic “covenant” in the preceding verses (vv.11-13). If diatheke meant “last will and testament” in v.15 the connection with the Mosaic Covenant in vv.11-13 would be lost and the whole argument rendered suspect. This conclusion comes into sharp relief once chapter 8 is considered. The superiority of the “better covenant” (Heb.8:6) demands it correspond to the Mosaic Covenant, and hence, that it be itself a true covenant and not a last will and testament. This understanding is assured by the contrast of v.7 which see.
Then, Heb. 8:8-12 gives the longest quotation of the OT by any NT writer. Is it in reference to a testament or a true covenant? The answer is impossible to ignore; it is to a “covenant” (OT “berith”) and not a testament!
3. The all important verse upon which your entire theory rests is Heb. 9:16-17. But there is no reason for translating diatheke as “testament” in the sense of “last will and testament” in this verse. For one thing, it would create an equivocation within the argument. But secondly, the meaning “covenant” makes perfect sense.
George H. Guthrie writes: “Interpreters often have read 9:16-17 in terms of “will” or “testament,” but these verses should be read, in their context, as speaking of the establishment of a covenant… “The one arranging [diatithemi] it,” occurring in participial form, in 9:16-17, refers to the sacrificial animal that must die for a covenant to be established (G.H. Guthrie 1998: 313). This fits perfectly with the argument of 9:18-22, which deals with Moses’ inauguration of the Sinai covenant with the sprinkling of blood (Exod. 24:3-8). - in, G. k. Beale & D. A. Carson, editors, Commentary on the New Testament Use of the Old , 2009, 973.
4. When one adds to this the critical observations of P. T. O’Brien your position is weakened yet further. O’Brien’s full discussion can be found on pages 328-332 of his recent The Letter To The Hebrews in the Pillar series. I shall condense his argument below:
He says,
As we have seen, the context of v.15 seems to demand the sense of ‘covenant’ because only covenants have mediators [italics mine] , while in v.18 mention is made of the ‘first diatheke kaine diatheke in 2 Cor. 3:6 to be the NC appealed to by Paul in the immediate context (v.3). Neither is the “new diatheke” as you call it a covenant despite being contrasted with the “old diatheke” of Moses in v.13 and the whole surrounding context. Exegetically speaking, you are on difficult ground to say the least.
Moreover, although you insist the gospel “is not a covenant” you allow it to be “the new testament.”! But how can you make “a proclamation that is true whether or not anyone believes it” into a last will and testament in distinction to a “covenant”? As I’ve shown (and as all scholars I know agree), the translation “covenant”, which lines up with the intended meaning of diatheke in the LXX, fits the context of 2 Cor. 3.
I just don’t think you are on solid exegetical or theological ground here my brother.
Follow up in the next post…
God bless,
Paul
Dr. Paul Henebury
I am Founder of Telos Ministries, and Senior Pastor at Agape Bible Church in N. Ca.
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