While the Reformers did not advocate the exclusive singing of Psalms ...did express "a partiality for Psalms and hymns drawn from Scripture"

In his first reason, he says Psalm 27:6 demands we sing psalms. Here is Psalm 27:6 “And now shall mine head be lifted up above mine enemies round about me: therefore will I offer in his tabernacle sacrifices of joy; I will sing, yea, I will sing praises unto the LORD.” All this verse says is to sing praises to God. Must that be Psalms? How did he arrive at that conclusion?

I don’t discount the need to sing psalms, but the reasons given are weak and lack much Scriptural backing or really any “meat”.