Jesus' or Jesus's?

Depending on which source you use, both could be considered correct. Most grammar sources I’ve seen indicate that the possessive form of a singular noun requires an “apostrophe s” regardless of the letter at the end of the word, but only an apostrophe at the end of plural nouns. Why? Who knows. http://www.freesmileys.org/smileys.php] http://www.freesmileys.org/smileys/smiley-confused013.gif

Its all His! :)

I asked my daughter and she said that both are correct, but I prefer Jesus’

Regarding Jesus’ vs Jesus’s, both are correct according to the Chicago Manual of Style. However, when a name ends in the letter s or z, whether or not to add an s after the apostrophe depends on how you pronounce it. If you write Jesus’s, then you would pronounce it Jesusus. If you write Jesus’, then it is pronounced Jesus. The NIV uses Jesus’. It is the newer and more common usage.

According to Chicago 7.15-16, singular nouns ending in s form their possessive with ‘s. So, Jesus’s. I like Jesus’ better, but oh well.

I believe MLA advises the same.

Chicago Manual of Style 7.23 offers an alternative practice for words ending in s. So like everyone else has said—Jesus’s and Jesus’ are both correct.

The key is to be consistent. So if you are using the NIV for Scripture references (such as Mark 6:14 or John 16:29), then it would be best to use Jesus’ in your text.

I like BJWester’s comment—It doesn’t matter—it’s all His!