Use of the word "hell" in the KJV
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I have just started reading three books on the topic of hell. In my study, I notice that the NIV uses words like “grave”, “pit”, etc. for the OT “Sheol”. The KJV uses the word “hell” in many of these circumstances. For lay persons, like myself, this causes some confusion, and it requires extra study. The book, “Hell Under Fire” points out that the OT has very little to say on the topic of “hell” (the traditional definition with never-ending torment in fire), and that most OT citations refer to a physical death or a generalized existence after life. Also, the NT deals with several words traslated to the English “hell” in the KJV (and sometimes the NIV).
This brings several questions to mind.
1. In order for layity to understand the doctrine of hell correctly when reading the Bible, would it be better to use the original Hebrew or Greek words (“sheol”, “hades”, “gehenna”) and let the reader be exposed to the differences in the meaning of the words? It seems this would be more honest with the original text than to assign one word (“hell”) to all of the above.
2. Did the prevailing doctrinal emphais of the day cause the KJV translators to assign the concept of “hell” to the OT passages that we now understand to mean “grave” or a more generic “life after death”? Would this be the equivalent of eisegesis?
3. For the KJVO members, do you believe that Psalm 18:5’s “hell” (KJV) is the same “hell” as Matthew 18:9?
4. Does anybody know where I can get a translation that accurately represents the distinctions between the different words from the original languages?
This brings several questions to mind.
1. In order for layity to understand the doctrine of hell correctly when reading the Bible, would it be better to use the original Hebrew or Greek words (“sheol”, “hades”, “gehenna”) and let the reader be exposed to the differences in the meaning of the words? It seems this would be more honest with the original text than to assign one word (“hell”) to all of the above.
2. Did the prevailing doctrinal emphais of the day cause the KJV translators to assign the concept of “hell” to the OT passages that we now understand to mean “grave” or a more generic “life after death”? Would this be the equivalent of eisegesis?
3. For the KJVO members, do you believe that Psalm 18:5’s “hell” (KJV) is the same “hell” as Matthew 18:9?
4. Does anybody know where I can get a translation that accurately represents the distinctions between the different words from the original languages?
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I should have added one more question:
Do Bibles in other languages distinguish between the words from the original languages, or do they use a generic “hell” word as well?
Do Bibles in other languages distinguish between the words from the original languages, or do they use a generic “hell” word as well?
I once read a pamphlet on Hell, which carefully listed all the places in the OT where “sheol” (in Hebrew) was found, and where it had been translated “hell” in the A.V.
It made the argument that “the grave” and “hell” (old English apparently) meant only ‘death’ and figuratively ‘the grave’, ‘the beyond’, ‘final rest’ etc. and implied no particular knowledge of or doctrine about death.
I believe that even Roman Catholics have had some difficulty supporting ideas about “hell” (i.e., the Dante-style version) and “purgatory” from Holy Scripture. But I am not familiar enough with the O.T. Apocrypha to know if those shed any light, or cause any misleading, regarding “hell”.
It may be telling that Jesus gave parables about “hell” to the Pharisees, as He also talked about “Baalzebub” in a similar manner. That is, Jesus may have been telling parables to show the absurdity or falseness of some now long-lost Pharisee beliefs or traditions or teachings. If so, the parable of Lazarus for instance may not be meant as an instructional source-book on hell so much as an exposition on why the Pharisees failed to respond properly to either Moses or Jesus.
It made the argument that “the grave” and “hell” (old English apparently) meant only ‘death’ and figuratively ‘the grave’, ‘the beyond’, ‘final rest’ etc. and implied no particular knowledge of or doctrine about death.
I believe that even Roman Catholics have had some difficulty supporting ideas about “hell” (i.e., the Dante-style version) and “purgatory” from Holy Scripture. But I am not familiar enough with the O.T. Apocrypha to know if those shed any light, or cause any misleading, regarding “hell”.
It may be telling that Jesus gave parables about “hell” to the Pharisees, as He also talked about “Baalzebub” in a similar manner. That is, Jesus may have been telling parables to show the absurdity or falseness of some now long-lost Pharisee beliefs or traditions or teachings. If so, the parable of Lazarus for instance may not be meant as an instructional source-book on hell so much as an exposition on why the Pharisees failed to respond properly to either Moses or Jesus.
Jn 7:53-8:11 is authentic John: http://adultera.awardspace.com
Thanks Edward. So do KJVO advocates agree that the usages of “hell” in the OT mean only “death” and “the grave”, or do they tend to hold that “hell” in the OT is the place of eternal punishment by fire?
I will certainly add the Apocrypha to my research on the subject in order to find out if our traditional theology on hell has been influenced much by it.
I will also check into Christ’s usage of “Baalzebub”. It is very interesting to me to see Christ cite pagan Gods (“Baalzebub”) and pagan settings (“Hades”). Sometimes it is difficult to understand where he is going with such citations.
I will certainly add the Apocrypha to my research on the subject in order to find out if our traditional theology on hell has been influenced much by it.
I will also check into Christ’s usage of “Baalzebub”. It is very interesting to me to see Christ cite pagan Gods (“Baalzebub”) and pagan settings (“Hades”). Sometimes it is difficult to understand where he is going with such citations.
[Sean Fericks] Thanks Edward. So do KJVO advocates agree that the usages of “hell” in the OT mean only “death” and “the grave”, or do they tend to hold that “hell” in the OT is the place of eternal punishment by fire?I’m not sure how people align on this subject.
Baptists tend to dominate the KJV supporters crowd.
They also tend to be fundamentalists, but also do more bible study than many other denominations.
Some Baptists prefer the modern versions because of doctrines like this.
I found my old pamphlet; I will re-look at it.
The title is “Hell”
It was originally sent free on request from
J. W. Williams
218 East 31st St.,
Tacoma 2, Washington
(no postal code).
This is a complex topic, that is how literally to take many of Jesus’ parables.
I will also check into Christ’s usage of “Baalzebub”. It is very interesting to me to see Christ cite pagan Gods (“Baalzebub”) and pagan settings (“Hades”). Sometimes it is difficult to understand where he is going with such citations.
I wish I had clear advice on this:
I will tend to try to focus on the main theme or purpose of a parable,
and try to find the contemporary political context as well (e.g. Pharisee beliefs etc.),
but the teachings of Jesus must be carefully studied.
peace
Nazaroo
Jn 7:53-8:11 is authentic John: http://adultera.awardspace.com
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