As iron sharpens iron,
one person sharpens another. (Proverbs 27:17)
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Many dispensationalists cite Romans 9:4 as proof that the covenants are only given to Israel, with the Church having no part in them. The verse reads:
who are Israelites, to whom pertain the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the service of God, and the promises…
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Let me begin by saying that those brothers with whom I disagree, whether they deny outright any involvement of the Church with the New covenant, or whether they believe the Church participates in the New covenant are due a respectful hearing. This is not the most important subject of Christian Theology.
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We are now in a position to tackle the main objections to the view that the Church is a full party (with future Israel) in the New covenant. As we will see, for this to be so it must be established that the New covenant is in effect now. I intend to try to prove that by looking again at the salient passages, noting how the “Israel-only” arguments are unsatisfactory. But before I do that I want to highlight the main points I have made in this series:
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Hebrews starts off by elevating Jesus Christ, proving from the OT that He is divine, but that He also “purged our sins” (Heb. 1:3) because He took upon Himself humanity (cf. Heb. 1:6; 2:9, 17). Jesus holds the office of High Priest (Heb. 3:1; 4:14-16). And the question arises, whose High Priest is He?
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Coming now to the Four Gospels, let me begin with Simeon’s statement in Luke 2. Luke tells us that Simeon was,
waiting for the Consolation of Israel, and the Holy Spirit was upon him. (Lk. 2:25)
As far as Simeon was concerned Jesus was to have a dual salvific role to the Gentiles and also to Israel:
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Many lists of New covenant verses do not include Isaiah 52:13-53:12. But I believe there is justification for using it as at least a supporting passage for the study of the New covenant. Allow me to explain my reasons for this.
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Although being cognizant of Fredrickson’s research regarding pre-19th century commentators on Isaiah 42:6 and 49:8 I think a selection of quotes from representative scholarship will help drive my point home. My point being that it is not some novel view that understands the “covenant” in these texts as being, in fact, Jesus Himself. Many may wish to avoid saying “Jesus is the New covenant.” But I think it hard to circumvent the claim that “Jesus is the embodiment of the New covenant.”
Discussion