I had been thinking about something for a while and thought I would post it here and see what all of you thought about it..
Jesus was many things..He was the Son of David. He was the Promised one of Israel. He was God in the flesh and he was the one who would die for the sins of all mankind.
Now, I would ask.. Which was he when he turned the water into wine ? Was that based on his later finishing the work of the cross ? Or was it simply because he was God ?
And how about the following..
Mat 8:28 ¶ And when he was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way.
Mat 8:29 And, behold, they cried out, saying, What have we to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time?
Now Jesus had not yet died on the cross and the Bible clearly says -
1Cr 2:7 But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, [even] the hidden [wisdom], which God ordained before the world unto our glory:
1Cr 2:8 Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known [it], they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
So is it not safe to say that even though these devils knew and feared Jesus, they had no idea he was to save mankind from sin ?
And did Jesus himself not say-
Mar 2:5 When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the sick of the palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven thee.
Mar 2:6 But there were certain of the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts,
Mar 2:7 Why doth this [man] thus speak blasphemies? who can forgive sins but God only?
Mar 2:8 And immediately when Jesus perceived in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, he said unto them, Why reason ye these things in your hearts?
Mar 2:9 Whether is it easier to say to the sick of the palsy, [Thy] sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and take up thy bed, and walk?
Mar 2:10 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (he saith to the sick of the palsy,)
Now maybe I'm missing something here..And I'm sure that some of you will say so if I am.. But when I look at all the above, And when I add that to the following-
Rom 9:11 (For [the children] being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;)
Rom 9:12 It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger.
Rom 9:13 As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.
Rom 9:14 ¶ What shall we say then? [Is there] unrighteousness with God? God forbid.
Rom 9:15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.
Rom 9:16 So then [it is] not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.
Rom 9:17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth.
Rom 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will [have mercy], and whom he will he hardeneth.
Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
Is there anyone amoung you who would stand up and say that had the prayers of Jesus been allowed in the garden, Meaning if the cup had passed from him, that those he healed and raised and cast out would have been made of none effect ?
Would the blind have once again gone blind ? Would Lazarus have rotted away in an instant ?
Understand that I am NOT saying this is the way it would have been. I would think the oposite though if asked.
I believe that if Jesus said it, it was.
What do you believe ?