How much of the time does God's Word deny God's attributes?
Wiping out heathen nations in OT times, God may have seemed not to have the attribute of love. Was God's attribute of love then or ever denied by Scripture? Are any of God's attributes ever denied by an accurate Bible?
When God told Adam not to eat the fruit of a certain tree, was the message described with timely words? Did God give Moses the 10 commandments on tablets of timely words? Was Jesus a Shakespeare of his day proclaiming "Go ye therefore ..." or were his words timely? Does God always have the attribute of timeliness?
If we are good stewards, how often is our iron sharp if we declare a Bible to be God's Word if it denies God's attribute of timeliness?


Mark,
can you or will you answer the questions you asked yourself?
1-Was God's attribute of love then or ever denied by Scripture? Not that I expect nor know of is God's attribute of love ever denied by Scripture.
2-Are any of God's attributes ever denied by an accurate Bible? Not that I expect nor know of are any of God's attribute ever denied by an accurate Bible.
3-... Does God always have the attribute of timeliness? I expect that God always does have the attribute of timeliness and that is impossible to show otherwise.
4-If we are good stewards, how often is our iron sharp if we declare a Bible to be God's Word if it denies God's attribute of timeliness? To the God whom always has the attribute of timeliness, I propose that iron is never sharp if it denies God's attribute of timeliness, love, or when any of God's attributes are denied.
From death he did rise and will come again.
Move on with him now to be ready for then.
Mark
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