Let me start by saying that I am completely committed to the fact that God has the right to limit the sexual behavior of humans, and that he has actually limited it (among other ways) by forbidding homosexual activity. So please do NOT interpret what I’m saying as an attempt to excuse or permit homosexual activity. The belief that some people are born that way (if it is, in fact, true) would not imply that God has no right to limit such behavior.
Here is my question. Have any of you studied the historical setting / context / interpretations of this verse as to what group or groups Christ is referring to when He says some are born eunuchs?
My initial study indicates that by the time of Christ the term eunuch is used for more than just the set of those who have been castrated. It seems in various usages in the ancient world of that time to include those who are born without the desire for women. Could Jesus be referring to people with a primary same-sex attraction? Or those who are born without the sexual impulse? Or both? Or is it merely a statement of physical disability (as in born without the anatomical parts for sexual activity)?
The argument of Christ is…
Some are born this way.
Some are made this way by the action of others.
Some choose to function this way.
If that is the case, could the first group include, for one example, a man who has a primarily homosexual attraction? Having recently read Wesley Hill’s book “Washed and Waiting” (reviewed http://sharperiron.org/article/book-review-washed-and-waiting-reflections-christian-faithfulness-and-homosexuality]here on SI a few months ago), I am aware that there are some with same sex attractions who choose to live entirely celibately out of loyalty to Christ. That would fit very well with this passage, I suspect.
Just looking for input here. I am preaching on “singleness” in a few weeks, and Matthew 19:12 is clearly important.