Previously I showed that Edwards argued that man will do whatever his greatest desire is. God created Adam very good without evil or evil desire. Where did Adam's desire to sin come from?
I'm coming back to this. I asked the question about Adam for a reason. Scripture says that we sin when we are drawn away of our own lusts. We also know that we sin when we are tempted. Christ was tempted, and the desires by which he was tempted were not ungodly desires, but rather the means were unauthorized. How is this any different? You are describing the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil so that the only manner in which it could appeal to Adam was in that it afforded to Adam the ability to sin. I do not see this.
So this is why I want to come back to Adam. You say in post 65 that to sin, Adam had to desire to do evil, but based on how I understand you to mean this, this would also mean that when Christ was tempted, for him to be truly tempted, he would have had to desire to do evil and then to resist that. Where did this desire arise within Christ. You say that using Satan as the catalyst is just a temporary foil, because it pushes things up the ladder one rung, but you are presuming that righteous knowledge and the environment cannot interact within a man to cause him to desire something. So, I'm still not sure you've provided any proof that what was working in Adam was a desire to sin (in the sense that you are using the terms). Can you clarify that?